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Topics:
Medical Licensing Examination Step 2
Fundamental Concepts
Understanding of medical terminology, anatomy, physiology, and biochemistry.
Knowledge of basic pharmacology and therapeutics.
Familiarity with medical ethics, professionalism, and legal aspects of healthcare.
Clinical Knowledge
Diagnosis and management of common medical conditions across various specialties:
Internal Medicine
Pediatrics
Surgery
Obstetrics and Gynecology
Psychiatry
Integration of clinical data to formulate differential diagnoses and treatment plans.
Interpretation of diagnostic tests and imaging studies.
Patient Care Skills
History taking and physical examination techniques.
Communication skills with patients, families, and healthcare teams.
Patient counseling, education, and shared decision-making.
Clinical Reasoning and Problem-Solving
Ability to analyze clinical scenarios, identify key issues, and prioritize management steps.
Application of evidence-based medicine in clinical practice.
Critical appraisal of medical literature and research studies.
Ethics, Professionalism, and Legal Aspects
Understanding of medical ethics principles and their application in patient care.
Knowledge of legal responsibilities, informed consent, confidentiality, and patient rights.
Professional behavior, including integrity, empathy, and cultural competence.
Integrated Systems and Multidisciplinary Care
Recognition of multisystem diseases and their impact on patient management.
Coordination of care among different specialties and healthcare providers.
Team-based approaches to patient care and interprofessional collaboration.
Preventive Medicine and Health Promotion
Strategies for disease prevention, health promotion, and patient education.
Screening guidelines for common medical conditions and risk assessment tools.
Lifestyle modifications, immunizations, and health maintenance recommendations.
Clinical Skills Assessment
Performance of clinical skills such as suturing, wound care, and procedural techniques.
Proficiency in medical documentation, including patient histories, progress notes, and discharge summaries.
Time management and organization in clinical settings.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
A patient presents with symptoms of severe dehydration, tachycardia, and hypotension. Laboratory tests reveal elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
Acute kidney injury (AKI) presents with a rapid decline in kidney function, leading to electrolyte imbalances, fluid overload, and metabolic disturbances like elevated BUN and creatinine. While diabetic ketoacidosis can cause dehydration and metabolic acidosis, it typically does not directly cause kidney injury. Hyperaldosteronism is associated with hypertension and electrolyte imbalances, not acute kidney injury. Hypovolemic shock can result from severe dehydration but does not explain the kidney dysfunction seen in AKI.
Incorrect
Acute kidney injury (AKI) presents with a rapid decline in kidney function, leading to electrolyte imbalances, fluid overload, and metabolic disturbances like elevated BUN and creatinine. While diabetic ketoacidosis can cause dehydration and metabolic acidosis, it typically does not directly cause kidney injury. Hyperaldosteronism is associated with hypertension and electrolyte imbalances, not acute kidney injury. Hypovolemic shock can result from severe dehydration but does not explain the kidney dysfunction seen in AKI.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Mr. Patel, a 65-year-old male, presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset chest pain radiating to his left arm, shortness of breath, and diaphoresis. His vital signs show tachycardia and elevated blood pressure. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?
Correct
Mr. Patel’s presentation is suggestive of acute coronary syndrome (ACS). Immediate administration of aspirin and nitroglycerin helps manage the symptoms and reduces cardiac workload. Performing an ECG promptly is crucial for diagnosing ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) or other cardiac conditions requiring urgent intervention. Ordering a chest X-ray and CBC may be relevant later but are not the initial priority. Starting fluids and monitoring blood pressure are important but secondary to managing the suspected cardiac event.
Incorrect
Mr. Patel’s presentation is suggestive of acute coronary syndrome (ACS). Immediate administration of aspirin and nitroglycerin helps manage the symptoms and reduces cardiac workload. Performing an ECG promptly is crucial for diagnosing ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) or other cardiac conditions requiring urgent intervention. Ordering a chest X-ray and CBC may be relevant later but are not the initial priority. Starting fluids and monitoring blood pressure are important but secondary to managing the suspected cardiac event.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Which of the following best describes the role of informed consent in medical practice?
Correct
Informed consent involves a detailed discussion with patients about the nature of proposed treatments, including potential risks, benefits, and alternative options. It empowers patients to make informed decisions about their healthcare and respects their autonomy. While understanding the diagnosis is important, informed consent specifically pertains to treatment discussions. Refusing treatment is part of patient autonomy but should be based on informed decision-making. Accessing medical records requires patient authorization but is not the primary focus of informed consent discussions.
Incorrect
Informed consent involves a detailed discussion with patients about the nature of proposed treatments, including potential risks, benefits, and alternative options. It empowers patients to make informed decisions about their healthcare and respects their autonomy. While understanding the diagnosis is important, informed consent specifically pertains to treatment discussions. Refusing treatment is part of patient autonomy but should be based on informed decision-making. Accessing medical records requires patient authorization but is not the primary focus of informed consent discussions.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
A 35-year-old female presents with recurrent episodes of abdominal pain, bloating, and altered bowel habits, alternating between diarrhea and constipation. She reports relief of symptoms after defecation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
The patient’s symptoms, including abdominal pain relieved by defecation and alternating bowel habits, are characteristic of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Crohn’s disease typically presents with more systemic symptoms and inflammatory changes in the bowel. Diverticulitis is associated with localized abdominal tenderness and infection of diverticula, not alternating bowel habits. Gastritis primarily presents with upper abdominal pain and is not typically associated with altered bowel habits.
Incorrect
The patient’s symptoms, including abdominal pain relieved by defecation and alternating bowel habits, are characteristic of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Crohn’s disease typically presents with more systemic symptoms and inflammatory changes in the bowel. Diverticulitis is associated with localized abdominal tenderness and infection of diverticula, not alternating bowel habits. Gastritis primarily presents with upper abdominal pain and is not typically associated with altered bowel habits.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
In a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE), which imaging modality is most appropriate for confirming the diagnosis?
Correct
CTPA is the imaging modality of choice for diagnosing pulmonary embolism (PE) due to its high sensitivity and specificity. Chest X-ray may show nonspecific findings but is not definitive for PE diagnosis. TTE can help assess cardiac function but is not used primarily for PE diagnosis. V/Q scan is an alternative to CTPA but is less commonly used and may have lower sensitivity in certain patient populations.
Incorrect
CTPA is the imaging modality of choice for diagnosing pulmonary embolism (PE) due to its high sensitivity and specificity. Chest X-ray may show nonspecific findings but is not definitive for PE diagnosis. TTE can help assess cardiac function but is not used primarily for PE diagnosis. V/Q scan is an alternative to CTPA but is less commonly used and may have lower sensitivity in certain patient populations.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Mrs. Thompson, a 58-year-old female with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes, presents with acute-onset right-sided weakness, facial droop, and slurred speech. On examination, she has a blood pressure of 180/100 mmHg. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct
Mrs. Thompson’s presentation is suggestive of acute ischemic stroke. The first step in management is to perform a non-contrast head CT scan to rule out intracranial hemorrhage, as tPA administration is contraindicated in such cases. Antihypertensive therapy should be initiated cautiously to avoid hypoperfusion in the acute stroke setting. Assessing blood glucose levels is important but not the initial priority in this scenario.
Incorrect
Mrs. Thompson’s presentation is suggestive of acute ischemic stroke. The first step in management is to perform a non-contrast head CT scan to rule out intracranial hemorrhage, as tPA administration is contraindicated in such cases. Antihypertensive therapy should be initiated cautiously to avoid hypoperfusion in the acute stroke setting. Assessing blood glucose levels is important but not the initial priority in this scenario.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
A 45-year-old male presents with progressive dyspnea on exertion, orthopnea, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. Physical examination reveals elevated jugular venous pressure, bilateral basal crackles on auscultation, and lower extremity edema. Which of the following findings is most consistent with this presentation?
Correct
The patient’s symptoms and physical findings are indicative of heart failure, specifically left-sided heart failure. Elevated PCWP reflects increased pressure in the pulmonary circulation due to left ventricular dysfunction, leading to pulmonary congestion and symptoms like dyspnea and orthopnea. Decreased cardiac output is a consequence of heart failure but is not the primary finding in this scenario. Normal oxygen saturation does not rule out heart failure, as it can remain normal until late stages.
Incorrect
The patient’s symptoms and physical findings are indicative of heart failure, specifically left-sided heart failure. Elevated PCWP reflects increased pressure in the pulmonary circulation due to left ventricular dysfunction, leading to pulmonary congestion and symptoms like dyspnea and orthopnea. Decreased cardiac output is a consequence of heart failure but is not the primary finding in this scenario. Normal oxygen saturation does not rule out heart failure, as it can remain normal until late stages.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Dr. Rodriguez, a family physician, prescribes a new medication to a patient with hypertension. The patient returns after one week reporting dizziness, fatigue, and a significant decrease in blood pressure. On reviewing the medication list, Dr. Rodriguez realizes a potential drug interaction. What should be Dr. Rodriguez’s immediate action?
Correct
The patient’s symptoms and decreased blood pressure suggest a potential adverse drug reaction or drug interaction. The immediate action should be to discontinue the new medication and monitor the patient’s symptoms. Ordering a comprehensive metabolic panel may be relevant but is not the immediate priority. Referring to a cardiologist or performing a drug interaction check can be considered after addressing the acute issue.
Incorrect
The patient’s symptoms and decreased blood pressure suggest a potential adverse drug reaction or drug interaction. The immediate action should be to discontinue the new medication and monitor the patient’s symptoms. Ordering a comprehensive metabolic panel may be relevant but is not the immediate priority. Referring to a cardiologist or performing a drug interaction check can be considered after addressing the acute issue.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of multiple sclerosis (MS)?
Correct
Optic nerve atrophy is a common manifestation of multiple sclerosis (MS) and can lead to visual disturbances. Symmetric polyarthritis is more indicative of rheumatoid arthritis. Hepatomegaly suggests liver involvement, not typical in MS. Bradycardia is not a characteristic feature of MS and may be related to other conditions like cardiac dysfunction or medication effects.
Incorrect
Optic nerve atrophy is a common manifestation of multiple sclerosis (MS) and can lead to visual disturbances. Symmetric polyarthritis is more indicative of rheumatoid arthritis. Hepatomegaly suggests liver involvement, not typical in MS. Bradycardia is not a characteristic feature of MS and may be related to other conditions like cardiac dysfunction or medication effects.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
A 60-year-old male presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset chest pain, diaphoresis, and shortness of breath. He has a history of smoking and hypertension. What is the most appropriate initial step in management?
Correct
The patient’s presentation is concerning for acute coronary syndrome (ACS). Administering oxygen helps improve oxygenation, and ordering an ECG is crucial for diagnosing ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) or other cardiac conditions requiring urgent intervention. A comprehensive metabolic panel is not the initial priority. Anticoagulation therapy and antibiotics are not indicated without a confirmed diagnosis.
Incorrect
The patient’s presentation is concerning for acute coronary syndrome (ACS). Administering oxygen helps improve oxygenation, and ordering an ECG is crucial for diagnosing ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) or other cardiac conditions requiring urgent intervention. A comprehensive metabolic panel is not the initial priority. Anticoagulation therapy and antibiotics are not indicated without a confirmed diagnosis.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Ms. Anderson, a 45-year-old female, presents to her primary care physician with symptoms of persistent sadness, loss of interest in activities, changes in appetite, and difficulty sleeping. She reports these symptoms have been ongoing for the past few months and are affecting her daily life. What is the most appropriate next step?
Correct
Ms. Anderson’s symptoms are suggestive of major depressive disorder. While antidepressant medication may be part of the treatment plan, a thorough psychiatric evaluation by a specialist is necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the most appropriate management, which may include therapy, medication, or a combination approach. Ordering laboratory tests can help rule out medical causes but should not delay psychiatric evaluation. Encouraging lifestyle modifications is important but not sufficient for addressing major depressive disorder.
Incorrect
Ms. Anderson’s symptoms are suggestive of major depressive disorder. While antidepressant medication may be part of the treatment plan, a thorough psychiatric evaluation by a specialist is necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the most appropriate management, which may include therapy, medication, or a combination approach. Ordering laboratory tests can help rule out medical causes but should not delay psychiatric evaluation. Encouraging lifestyle modifications is important but not sufficient for addressing major depressive disorder.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Which of the following statements best describes the principle of beneficence in medical ethics?
Correct
The principle of beneficence in medical ethics emphasizes the duty to act in the patient’s best interest, promoting their well-being and health outcomes. Respecting patient autonomy involves honoring their decisions and choices. Maintaining confidentiality is part of respecting privacy rights, and avoiding harm is related to the principle of nonmaleficence, which focuses on preventing harm to patients.
Incorrect
The principle of beneficence in medical ethics emphasizes the duty to act in the patient’s best interest, promoting their well-being and health outcomes. Respecting patient autonomy involves honoring their decisions and choices. Maintaining confidentiality is part of respecting privacy rights, and avoiding harm is related to the principle of nonmaleficence, which focuses on preventing harm to patients.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
A 65-year-old male with a history of diabetes mellitus type 2 presents with recurrent episodes of hypoglycemia despite adherence to his insulin regimen. He reports increased hunger and sweating during these episodes. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his recurrent hypoglycemia?
Correct
Recurrent hypoglycemia in a diabetic patient often indicates inadequate insulin dosage relative to dietary intake and physical activity. This imbalance can lead to episodes of low blood sugar despite adherence to treatment. Insulin resistance, autonomic neuropathy, and poor dietary compliance can contribute to glycemic control issues but are less likely to cause recurrent hypoglycemia in a patient on insulin therapy. Adjusting insulin dosages based on glucose monitoring and meal planning is essential for preventing hypoglycemic events.
Incorrect
Recurrent hypoglycemia in a diabetic patient often indicates inadequate insulin dosage relative to dietary intake and physical activity. This imbalance can lead to episodes of low blood sugar despite adherence to treatment. Insulin resistance, autonomic neuropathy, and poor dietary compliance can contribute to glycemic control issues but are less likely to cause recurrent hypoglycemia in a patient on insulin therapy. Adjusting insulin dosages based on glucose monitoring and meal planning is essential for preventing hypoglycemic events.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Mr. Martinez, a 70-year-old male, presents with confusion, urinary incontinence, and difficulty walking. His family reports these symptoms started abruptly over the past few days. On examination, he has a fever and signs of meningeal irritation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
Mr. Martinez’s presentation, including abrupt onset confusion, fever, meningeal signs, and urinary incontinence, is suggestive of acute bacterial meningitis. Alzheimer’s disease presents with gradual cognitive decline, not acute confusion. UTI can cause confusion but typically lacks meningeal signs. Parkinson’s disease does not typically present with acute confusion and meningeal irritation.
Incorrect
Mr. Martinez’s presentation, including abrupt onset confusion, fever, meningeal signs, and urinary incontinence, is suggestive of acute bacterial meningitis. Alzheimer’s disease presents with gradual cognitive decline, not acute confusion. UTI can cause confusion but typically lacks meningeal signs. Parkinson’s disease does not typically present with acute confusion and meningeal irritation.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
What is the primary purpose of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) in healthcare settings?
Correct
HIPAA aims to protect patient confidentiality and privacy by setting standards for the use and disclosure of protected health information (PHI). It does not address universal healthcare coverage, provider licensing, or quality standards directly, although it indirectly impacts quality by safeguarding patient information.
Incorrect
HIPAA aims to protect patient confidentiality and privacy by setting standards for the use and disclosure of protected health information (PHI). It does not address universal healthcare coverage, provider licensing, or quality standards directly, although it indirectly impacts quality by safeguarding patient information.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
A 25-year-old female presents with recurrent episodes of joint pain, swelling, and stiffness, particularly in the small joints of her hands and feet. She also experiences fatigue and morning stiffness lasting more than an hour. Laboratory tests show elevated anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibodies and rheumatoid factor (RF). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
The patient’s symptoms, including joint pain/swelling/stiffness, fatigue, morning stiffness, and positive anti-CCP antibodies and RF, are classic for rheumatoid arthritis. SLE typically presents with a broader range of symptoms and organ involvement. Psoriatic arthritis is associated with psoriasis and may involve specific joint patterns. Ankylosing spondylitis primarily affects the spine and sacroiliac joints, with less involvement of small joints.
Incorrect
The patient’s symptoms, including joint pain/swelling/stiffness, fatigue, morning stiffness, and positive anti-CCP antibodies and RF, are classic for rheumatoid arthritis. SLE typically presents with a broader range of symptoms and organ involvement. Psoriatic arthritis is associated with psoriasis and may involve specific joint patterns. Ankylosing spondylitis primarily affects the spine and sacroiliac joints, with less involvement of small joints.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Ms. Lee, a 35-year-old female, presents with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs). She reports symptoms of dysuria, frequency, and urgency. Laboratory tests reveal Escherichia coli (E. coli) as the causative organism. What is the most appropriate management strategy?
Correct
Ms. Lee’s recurrent UTIs with a known causative organism (E. coli) may benefit from long-term antibiotic prophylaxis to prevent further episodes. This strategy aims to reduce the frequency of UTIs. Short courses of antibiotics are appropriate for acute UTIs but may not prevent recurrences. Urodynamic studies and surgical evaluation are typically reserved for specific cases with underlying urinary tract issues.
Incorrect
Ms. Lee’s recurrent UTIs with a known causative organism (E. coli) may benefit from long-term antibiotic prophylaxis to prevent further episodes. This strategy aims to reduce the frequency of UTIs. Short courses of antibiotics are appropriate for acute UTIs but may not prevent recurrences. Urodynamic studies and surgical evaluation are typically reserved for specific cases with underlying urinary tract issues.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Which of the following best describes the role of the hippocampus in the brain?
Correct
The hippocampus plays a crucial role in the formation and consolidation of memories, particularly episodic and declarative memories.
Incorrect
The hippocampus plays a crucial role in the formation and consolidation of memories, particularly episodic and declarative memories.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Mrs. Smith, a 60-year-old female, presents with sudden-onset confusion, severe headache, and neck stiffness. On examination, she has photophobia and positive Kernig’s sign. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
Mrs. Smith’s symptoms, including sudden confusion, severe headache, neck stiffness, photophobia, and positive Kernig’s sign (a sign of meningeal irritation), are highly suggestive of meningitis, an infection or inflammation of the meninges.
Incorrect
Mrs. Smith’s symptoms, including sudden confusion, severe headache, neck stiffness, photophobia, and positive Kernig’s sign (a sign of meningeal irritation), are highly suggestive of meningitis, an infection or inflammation of the meninges.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
What is the primary mechanism of action of beta-blockers in the treatment of hypertension?
Correct
Beta-blockers work by blocking beta-adrenergic receptors, leading to reduced heart rate, decreased contractility, and decreased renin release, ultimately lowering blood pressure.
Incorrect
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
A 40-year-old male presents with acute abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. On examination, there is tenderness in the right lower quadrant, rebound tenderness, and guarding. Laboratory tests show an elevated white blood cell count. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
The patient’s presentation, including right lower quadrant tenderness, rebound tenderness, guarding, elevated white blood cell count, and symptoms of nausea and vomiting, is highly suggestive of appendicitis.
Incorrect
The patient’s presentation, including right lower quadrant tenderness, rebound tenderness, guarding, elevated white blood cell count, and symptoms of nausea and vomiting, is highly suggestive of appendicitis.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Dr. Thompson, a family physician, has a patient with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM). Despite lifestyle modifications and multiple oral medications, the patient’s glycemic control remains suboptimal. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct
In cases of poorly controlled type 2 DM despite oral medications and lifestyle modifications, initiating insulin therapy is often necessary to achieve better glycemic control. Referral to an endocrinologist may also be considered for specialized management.
Incorrect
In cases of poorly controlled type 2 DM despite oral medications and lifestyle modifications, initiating insulin therapy is often necessary to achieve better glycemic control. Referral to an endocrinologist may also be considered for specialized management.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Crohn’s disease?
Correct
Crohn’s disease is characterized by skip lesions, meaning segments of the gastrointestinal tract are affected with areas of healthy tissue in between. It can involve any part of the gastrointestinal tract, not just the colon.
Incorrect
Crohn’s disease is characterized by skip lesions, meaning segments of the gastrointestinal tract are affected with areas of healthy tissue in between. It can involve any part of the gastrointestinal tract, not just the colon.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
A 55-year-old male presents with sudden-onset weakness on one side of his body, slurred speech, and facial droop. His symptoms started approximately 2 hours ago. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct
The patient’s symptoms suggest an acute ischemic stroke. Immediate administration of tPA is crucial within the appropriate time window for eligible patients to improve outcomes.
Incorrect
The patient’s symptoms suggest an acute ischemic stroke. Immediate administration of tPA is crucial within the appropriate time window for eligible patients to improve outcomes.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Mrs. Rodriguez, a 70-year-old female with a history of heart failure, presents with dyspnea, orthopnea, and bilateral leg swelling. She reports worsening symptoms over the past week. On examination, there are crackles in the lung bases and elevated jugular venous pressure. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
Mrs. Rodriguez’s symptoms, including dyspnea, orthopnea, bilateral leg swelling, crackles on lung examination, and elevated jugular venous pressure, are consistent with acute decompensated heart failure.
Incorrect
Mrs. Rodriguez’s symptoms, including dyspnea, orthopnea, bilateral leg swelling, crackles on lung examination, and elevated jugular venous pressure, are consistent with acute decompensated heart failure.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Which of the following laboratory findings is characteristic of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
Correct
In SLE, an elevated ESR is often seen due to inflammation. ANA is typically positive, complement levels may be low, and anti-dsDNA antibodies are often present.
Incorrect
In SLE, an elevated ESR is often seen due to inflammation. ANA is typically positive, complement levels may be low, and anti-dsDNA antibodies are often present.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Which of the following is an example of a positive predictive value (PPV) in diagnostic testing?
Correct
PPV represents the likelihood that a positive test result is indeed true, indicating the presence of the condition being tested for.
Incorrect
PPV represents the likelihood that a positive test result is indeed true, indicating the presence of the condition being tested for.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Dr. Patel, a primary care physician, is managing a patient with hypertension. Despite lifestyle modifications and multiple antihypertensive medications, the patient’s blood pressure remains elevated. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct
When blood pressure remains uncontrolled despite initial management, referral to a hypertension specialist for specialized evaluation and treatment optimization is appropriate.
Incorrect
When blood pressure remains uncontrolled despite initial management, referral to a hypertension specialist for specialized evaluation and treatment optimization is appropriate.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency?
Correct
CAH due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency can cause virilization in females due to excess androgen production.
Incorrect
CAH due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency can cause virilization in females due to excess androgen production.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
A 30-year-old female presents with recurrent episodes of severe abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea. She also reports unintentional weight loss. Laboratory tests show elevated fecal calprotectin levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
The patient’s symptoms, elevated fecal calprotectin levels, and chronicity of symptoms suggest a diagnosis of IBD, such as Crohn’s disease or ulcerative colitis.
Incorrect
The patient’s symptoms, elevated fecal calprotectin levels, and chronicity of symptoms suggest a diagnosis of IBD, such as Crohn’s disease or ulcerative colitis.