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Topics:
Medical Licensing Examination Step 1
Basic Sciences
Anatomy
Gross anatomy
Histology
Embryology
Physiology
Cellular and molecular physiology
Organ system physiology
Biochemistry
Molecular biology
Metabolism
Genetics
Microbiology
Bacteriology
Virology
Mycology
Parasitology
Immunology
Immunoglobulins
Cellular immunity
Hypersensitivity reactions
Pathology
General pathology
Systemic pathology
Pathophysiology
2. Organ Systems
Cardiovascular System
Cardiac anatomy and physiology
Cardiovascular diseases
Respiratory System
Pulmonary anatomy and physiology
Respiratory diseases
Gastrointestinal System
GI anatomy and physiology
Gastrointestinal diseases
Renal/Urinary System
Renal anatomy and physiology
Renal diseases
Endocrine System
Endocrine glands and hormones
Endocrine disorders
Reproductive System
Male and female reproductive anatomy and physiology
Reproductive disorders
Musculoskeletal System
Musculoskeletal anatomy and physiology
Musculoskeletal diseases
Nervous System
Neuroanatomy and physiology
Neurological diseases
3. Behavioral Sciences
Psychiatry
Psychiatric disorders
Psychopharmacology
Psychology
Cognitive psychology
Developmental psychology
Social psychology
Sociology
Social determinants of health
Cultural competence
4. Biostatistics and Epidemiology
Biostatistics
Study design
Data interpretation
Probability and statistics
Epidemiology
Basic epidemiological concepts
Study designs in epidemiology
Disease surveillance and outbreak investigation
5. Ethics and Professionalism
Medical Ethics
Principles of medical ethics
Ethical dilemmas in healthcare
Professionalism
Physician-patient relationship
Communication skills
Professional responsibilities
6. Integrated Systems
Multisystem Processes
Inflammation and healing
Hemodynamics
Shock and multiorgan failure
Medical Licensing Examination:
Basic Sciences
Anatomy
Gross anatomy
Histology
Embryology
Physiology
Cellular and molecular physiology
Organ system physiology
Biochemistry
Molecular biology
Metabolism
Genetics
Microbiology
Bacteriology
Virology
Mycology
Parasitology
Immunology
Immunoglobulins
Cellular immunity
Hypersensitivity reactions
Pathology
General pathology
Systemic pathology
Pathophysiology
2. Organ Systems
Cardiovascular System
Cardiac anatomy and physiology
Cardiovascular diseases
Respiratory System
Pulmonary anatomy and physiology
Respiratory diseases
Gastrointestinal System
GI anatomy and physiology
Gastrointestinal diseases
Renal/Urinary System
Renal anatomy and physiology
Renal diseases
Endocrine System
Endocrine glands and hormones
Endocrine disorders
Reproductive System
Male and female reproductive anatomy and physiology
Reproductive disorders
Musculoskeletal System
Musculoskeletal anatomy and physiology
Musculoskeletal diseases
Nervous System
Neuroanatomy and physiology
Neurological diseases
3. Behavioral Sciences
Psychiatry
Psychiatric disorders
Psychopharmacology
Psychology
Cognitive psychology
Developmental psychology
Social psychology
Sociology
Social determinants of health
Cultural competence
4. Biostatistics and Epidemiology
Biostatistics
Study design
Data interpretation
Probability and statistics
Epidemiology
Basic epidemiological concepts
Study designs in epidemiology
Disease surveillance and outbreak investigation
5. Ethics and Professionalism
Medical Ethics
Principles of medical ethics
Ethical dilemmas in healthcare
Professionalism
Physician-patient relationship
Communication skills
Professional responsibilities
6. Integrated Systems
Multisystem Processes
Inflammation and healing
Hemodynamics
Shock and multiorgan failure
Aging
Geriatric syndromes
Age-related diseases
Nutrition
Nutritional requirements
Malnutrition and nutritional disorders
Genetics
Genetic disorders
Genetic counseling
7. Clinical Skills
History Taking and Physical Examination
Patient interviewing
Physical examination techniques
Clinical Reasoning
Diagnostic reasoning
Differential diagnosis
Diagnostic Studies
Laboratory tests
Imaging studies
Biopsy and histopathology
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors in treating hypertension?
Correct
ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to decreased aldosterone secretion. This effect reduces sodium and water retention, thereby lowering blood pressure. Option a is incorrect because ACE inhibitors do not directly inhibit angiotensin II receptor binding. Option c is incorrect because direct vasodilation is primarily the mechanism of action of calcium channel blockers. Option d is incorrect as it describes the action of ACE inhibitors but is not the primary mechanism of their antihypertensive effect.
Incorrect
ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to decreased aldosterone secretion. This effect reduces sodium and water retention, thereby lowering blood pressure. Option a is incorrect because ACE inhibitors do not directly inhibit angiotensin II receptor binding. Option c is incorrect because direct vasodilation is primarily the mechanism of action of calcium channel blockers. Option d is incorrect as it describes the action of ACE inhibitors but is not the primary mechanism of their antihypertensive effect.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Scenario: Mr. Parker, a 45-year-old man, has a history of alcohol use disorder and presents to the emergency department with severe withdrawal symptoms including tremors, agitation, and hallucinations. He is conscious but disoriented. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate initially?
Correct
In cases of alcohol withdrawal with neurological symptoms like tremors, agitation, and hallucinations, it’s crucial to administer thiamine (vitamin B1) to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy and Korsakoff’s syndrome. Options a and c are incorrect as they may exacerbate symptoms or have adverse effects. Option d is not the immediate priority in managing acute withdrawal symptoms.
Incorrect
In cases of alcohol withdrawal with neurological symptoms like tremors, agitation, and hallucinations, it’s crucial to administer thiamine (vitamin B1) to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy and Korsakoff’s syndrome. Options a and c are incorrect as they may exacerbate symptoms or have adverse effects. Option d is not the immediate priority in managing acute withdrawal symptoms.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Which of the following best characterizes the cellular changes in reversible cell injury?
Correct
Reversible cell injury is characterized by cellular swelling due to the influx of water and the swelling of organelles like the endoplasmic reticulum. Options a, c, and d are associated with irreversible cell injury and cell death processes, such as apoptosis or necrosis, rather than reversible changes seen in early cell injury.
Incorrect
Reversible cell injury is characterized by cellular swelling due to the influx of water and the swelling of organelles like the endoplasmic reticulum. Options a, c, and d are associated with irreversible cell injury and cell death processes, such as apoptosis or necrosis, rather than reversible changes seen in early cell injury.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
A patient presents with recurrent bacterial infections, particularly with encapsulated organisms such as Streptococcus pneumoniae. Laboratory tests reveal decreased levels of IgG, IgA, and IgM. Which of the following conditions is most likely?
Correct
CVID is characterized by decreased levels of immunoglobulins (IgG, IgA, IgM) and increased susceptibility to bacterial infections, especially with encapsulated organisms. Options b, c, and d are associated with specific deficiencies of individual immunoglobulin classes but do not typically involve decreased levels across multiple classes as seen in CVID.
Incorrect
CVID is characterized by decreased levels of immunoglobulins (IgG, IgA, IgM) and increased susceptibility to bacterial infections, especially with encapsulated organisms. Options b, c, and d are associated with specific deficiencies of individual immunoglobulin classes but do not typically involve decreased levels across multiple classes as seen in CVID.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
A 32-year-old female presents with rapid weight gain, fatigue, cold intolerance, and constipation. Physical examination reveals dry skin, coarse hair, and a visibly enlarged thyroid gland. Laboratory tests show elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and low free thyroxine (T4) levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is characterized by hypothyroidism due to autoimmune destruction of the thyroid gland. This presents with elevated TSH and low T4 levels, along with goiter and typical symptoms. Options a, c, and d are associated with hyperthyroidism or transient thyroid dysfunction, not the chronic hypothyroidism seen in Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.
Incorrect
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is characterized by hypothyroidism due to autoimmune destruction of the thyroid gland. This presents with elevated TSH and low T4 levels, along with goiter and typical symptoms. Options a, c, and d are associated with hyperthyroidism or transient thyroid dysfunction, not the chronic hypothyroidism seen in Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Dr. Smith is treating a patient with a terminal illness who expresses a desire to end their life to avoid prolonged suffering. The patient has decision-making capacity and has made this request consistently over time. What is the most appropriate action for Dr. Smith?
Correct
Respecting patient autonomy is a fundamental principle of medical ethics. In cases where a patient with decision-making capacity requests assisted suicide or euthanasia, the physician should provide information about available options while considering legal and ethical guidelines. Options b, c, and d do not prioritize patient autonomy or address the patient’s request in an ethical manner.
Incorrect
Respecting patient autonomy is a fundamental principle of medical ethics. In cases where a patient with decision-making capacity requests assisted suicide or euthanasia, the physician should provide information about available options while considering legal and ethical guidelines. Options b, c, and d do not prioritize patient autonomy or address the patient’s request in an ethical manner.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
A 60-year-old male smoker presents with progressive dyspnea, chronic cough with sputum production, and wheezing. Pulmonary function tests show irreversible airflow limitation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
Emphysema is characterized by irreversible destruction of alveolar walls, leading to airflow limitation and symptoms like dyspnea, chronic cough, and wheezing, especially in smokers. Chronic bronchitis (option a) is characterized by productive cough but does not typically show irreversible airflow limitation on pulmonary function tests. Asthma (option c) presents with reversible airflow obstruction, and bronchiectasis (option d) involves dilated bronchi but may not show typical findings on pulmonary function tests as in emphysema.
Incorrect
Emphysema is characterized by irreversible destruction of alveolar walls, leading to airflow limitation and symptoms like dyspnea, chronic cough, and wheezing, especially in smokers. Chronic bronchitis (option a) is characterized by productive cough but does not typically show irreversible airflow limitation on pulmonary function tests. Asthma (option c) presents with reversible airflow obstruction, and bronchiectasis (option d) involves dilated bronchi but may not show typical findings on pulmonary function tests as in emphysema.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Which of the following structures is most commonly injured in fractures of the surgical neck of the humerus?
Correct
Fractures of the surgical neck of the humerus can injure the axillary nerve, leading to weakness and loss of sensation in the deltoid muscle and over the lateral aspect of the shoulder. Options b, c, and d represent nerves that are not commonly affected in fractures of this specific anatomical region.
Incorrect
Fractures of the surgical neck of the humerus can injure the axillary nerve, leading to weakness and loss of sensation in the deltoid muscle and over the lateral aspect of the shoulder. Options b, c, and d represent nerves that are not commonly affected in fractures of this specific anatomical region.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Scenario: A 55-year-old female presents with sudden-onset severe chest pain radiating to the left arm, diaphoresis, and shortness of breath. On examination, she is pale, diaphoretic, and tachypneic. Blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, heart rate is 120 bpm, and oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct
The patient’s presentation is consistent with acute coronary syndrome (ACS), specifically myocardial infarction (MI). Aspirin and nitroglycerin should be administered immediately as part of initial management, followed by activating the cardiac catheterization lab for revascularization. Options b, c, and d are not appropriate as initial management for MI and may delay crucial interventions.
Incorrect
The patient’s presentation is consistent with acute coronary syndrome (ACS), specifically myocardial infarction (MI). Aspirin and nitroglycerin should be administered immediately as part of initial management, followed by activating the cardiac catheterization lab for revascularization. Options b, c, and d are not appropriate as initial management for MI and may delay crucial interventions.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Scenario: Mrs. Anderson, a 70-year-old woman, has been recently diagnosed with mild cognitive impairment. She lives alone and is starting to forget to take her medications regularly. She is aware of her forgetfulness but is resistant to the idea of moving to assisted living. What is the most appropriate initial intervention?
Correct
In cases of mild cognitive impairment and forgetfulness, conducting a comprehensive assessment is crucial to understand the extent of cognitive decline, assess safety in the current living situation, and determine appropriate interventions. Options a, c, and d may be considered based on the assessment findings but should not be the initial step without a thorough evaluation.
Incorrect
In cases of mild cognitive impairment and forgetfulness, conducting a comprehensive assessment is crucial to understand the extent of cognitive decline, assess safety in the current living situation, and determine appropriate interventions. Options a, c, and d may be considered based on the assessment findings but should not be the initial step without a thorough evaluation.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of restrictive cardiomyopathy?
Correct
Restrictive cardiomyopathy is characterized by impaired diastolic filling due to stiff ventricular walls, leading to decreased compliance. This results in preserved systolic function (normal or near-normal ejection fraction) but impaired diastolic function. Options a, c, and d are features of other types of cardiomyopathy but not specifically restrictive cardiomyopathy.
Incorrect
Restrictive cardiomyopathy is characterized by impaired diastolic filling due to stiff ventricular walls, leading to decreased compliance. This results in preserved systolic function (normal or near-normal ejection fraction) but impaired diastolic function. Options a, c, and d are features of other types of cardiomyopathy but not specifically restrictive cardiomyopathy.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
A study aims to investigate the association between smoking status (current smoker vs. non-smoker) and the risk of lung cancer. Which of the following measures is most appropriate to quantify this association?
Correct
Relative risk (RR) is the most appropriate measure for quantifying the association between exposure (smoking status) and outcome (lung cancer risk) in a cohort study or clinical trial. It directly compares the risk of developing the outcome between exposed and unexposed groups. Options a, c, and d are used in specific contexts (e.g., odds ratio for case-control studies, hazard ratio for survival analysis), but for this scenario, RR is the most relevant measure.
Incorrect
Relative risk (RR) is the most appropriate measure for quantifying the association between exposure (smoking status) and outcome (lung cancer risk) in a cohort study or clinical trial. It directly compares the risk of developing the outcome between exposed and unexposed groups. Options a, c, and d are used in specific contexts (e.g., odds ratio for case-control studies, hazard ratio for survival analysis), but for this scenario, RR is the most relevant measure.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
A couple is seeking genetic counseling due to a family history of Huntington’s disease. The father is known to have the mutant allele with 40 CAG repeats in the HTT gene. What is the risk that their child will inherit Huntington’s disease?
Correct
Huntington’s disease follows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance. With one affected parent (heterozygous), there is a 50% chance that each offspring will inherit the mutant allele and develop the disease. Options a, b, and d represent probabilities that do not align with the known inheritance pattern of Huntington’s disease.
Incorrect
Huntington’s disease follows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance. With one affected parent (heterozygous), there is a 50% chance that each offspring will inherit the mutant allele and develop the disease. Options a, b, and d represent probabilities that do not align with the known inheritance pattern of Huntington’s disease.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
A patient presents with signs and symptoms of Cushing’s syndrome, including central obesity, moon facies, buffalo hump, and easy bruising. Laboratory tests show elevated cortisol levels. What is the most likely cause of Cushing’s syndrome in this patient?
Correct
Exogenous glucocorticoid use is a common cause of iatrogenic Cushing’s syndrome. Patients receiving long-term glucocorticoid therapy can develop symptoms and signs consistent with Cushing’s syndrome due to the pharmacological effects of the medication. Options a, b, and d represent other causes of Cushing’s syndrome but are less likely in this scenario without additional information.
Incorrect
Exogenous glucocorticoid use is a common cause of iatrogenic Cushing’s syndrome. Patients receiving long-term glucocorticoid therapy can develop symptoms and signs consistent with Cushing’s syndrome due to the pharmacological effects of the medication. Options a, b, and d represent other causes of Cushing’s syndrome but are less likely in this scenario without additional information.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
A patient presents with hematuria, proteinuria, and hypertension. Renal biopsy shows thickening of the glomerular basement membrane with “spike and dome” appearance on immunofluorescence. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
Membranous nephropathy is characterized by thickening of the glomerular basement membrane, leading to hematuria, proteinuria (often nephrotic range), and hypertension. The “spike and dome” appearance on immunofluorescence is a classic finding in membranous nephropathy. Options b, c, and d represent other glomerular diseases with different histopathological features and clinical presentations.
Incorrect
Membranous nephropathy is characterized by thickening of the glomerular basement membrane, leading to hematuria, proteinuria (often nephrotic range), and hypertension. The “spike and dome” appearance on immunofluorescence is a classic finding in membranous nephropathy. Options b, c, and d represent other glomerular diseases with different histopathological features and clinical presentations.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
A 65-year-old male presents with sudden-onset right-sided weakness, facial droop, and slurred speech. On examination, he has a left hemiparesis and impaired sensation on the right side of his body. A brain MRI reveals an acute infarction in the left middle cerebral artery territory. Which artery is most likely occluded in this case?
Correct
The presentation of right-sided weakness, facial droop, and hemisensory deficits with a left middle cerebral artery (MCA) infarction is consistent with a classic MCA syndrome. The MCA supplies blood to the lateral aspects of the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes, and its occlusion commonly leads to these clinical manifestations. Options a, b, and d represent other cerebral arteries with different territories and associated syndromes.
Incorrect
The presentation of right-sided weakness, facial droop, and hemisensory deficits with a left middle cerebral artery (MCA) infarction is consistent with a classic MCA syndrome. The MCA supplies blood to the lateral aspects of the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes, and its occlusion commonly leads to these clinical manifestations. Options a, b, and d represent other cerebral arteries with different territories and associated syndromes.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
A 30-year-old woman presents with persistent feelings of worthlessness, loss of interest in activities, disrupted sleep, and changes in appetite leading to significant weight loss. She reports a depressed mood that has lasted for several months. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
The presentation is consistent with major depressive disorder (MDD), characterized by persistent depressed mood, anhedonia, changes in sleep and appetite, feelings of worthlessness, and significant impairment in daily functioning. Options b, c, and d represent other psychiatric conditions with different symptom profiles and diagnostic criteria.
Incorrect
The presentation is consistent with major depressive disorder (MDD), characterized by persistent depressed mood, anhedonia, changes in sleep and appetite, feelings of worthlessness, and significant impairment in daily functioning. Options b, c, and d represent other psychiatric conditions with different symptom profiles and diagnostic criteria.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
A 45-year-old male presents with recurrent episodes of epigastric pain that worsen after meals. He also experiences nausea and occasional vomiting. Endoscopic examination reveals erosions and inflammation in the gastric mucosa. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
The presentation of epigastric pain that worsens after meals, along with erosions and inflammation in the gastric mucosa, is indicative of peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Gastric ulcers (option a) specifically involve ulcers in the stomach lining. GERD (option b) is characterized by reflux of stomach contents into the esophagus, and acute gastritis (option d) presents with acute inflammation of the gastric mucosa without erosions.
Incorrect
The presentation of epigastric pain that worsens after meals, along with erosions and inflammation in the gastric mucosa, is indicative of peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Gastric ulcers (option a) specifically involve ulcers in the stomach lining. GERD (option b) is characterized by reflux of stomach contents into the esophagus, and acute gastritis (option d) presents with acute inflammation of the gastric mucosa without erosions.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
A couple with a family history of cystic fibrosis seeks genetic counseling. The woman is a carrier of the CFTR gene mutation, and the man is not. What is the probability that their child will have cystic fibrosis?
Correct
Cystic fibrosis follows an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance. If one parent is a carrier (heterozygous) and the other parent is not a carrier or affected, each child has a 25% chance of inheriting two copies of the mutated gene and having cystic fibrosis. Options a, c, and d represent probabilities that do not align with the known inheritance pattern of cystic fibrosis.
Incorrect
Cystic fibrosis follows an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance. If one parent is a carrier (heterozygous) and the other parent is not a carrier or affected, each child has a 25% chance of inheriting two copies of the mutated gene and having cystic fibrosis. Options a, c, and d represent probabilities that do not align with the known inheritance pattern of cystic fibrosis.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Scenario: Mr. Smith, a 55-year-old man, presents with chest pain radiating to his left arm and shortness of breath. He has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia. On examination, he appears diaphoretic and has elevated blood pressure. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
The presentation of chest pain radiating to the left arm, shortness of breath, diaphoresis, and elevated blood pressure in a patient with risk factors like hypertension and hyperlipidemia is highly suggestive of an acute myocardial infarction (AMI). Options a, c, and d represent other cardiovascular conditions but are less likely given the clinical context.
Incorrect
The presentation of chest pain radiating to the left arm, shortness of breath, diaphoresis, and elevated blood pressure in a patient with risk factors like hypertension and hyperlipidemia is highly suggestive of an acute myocardial infarction (AMI). Options a, c, and d represent other cardiovascular conditions but are less likely given the clinical context.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
A 40-year-old man presents with persistent worry, restlessness, muscle tension, and difficulty concentrating. These symptoms have lasted for at least six months and significantly affect his daily life. He reports feeling “on edge” most of the time. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
The patient’s presentation is consistent with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), characterized by excessive worry, restlessness, muscle tension, and difficulty concentrating lasting for at least six months. Options b, c, and d represent other anxiety disorders with different symptom profiles and diagnostic criteria.
Incorrect
The patient’s presentation is consistent with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), characterized by excessive worry, restlessness, muscle tension, and difficulty concentrating lasting for at least six months. Options b, c, and d represent other anxiety disorders with different symptom profiles and diagnostic criteria.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
A 65-year-old male smoker presents with chronic cough, dyspnea on exertion, and weight loss. Chest X-ray shows a cavitary lesion in the upper lobe of the right lung. Sputum analysis reveals acid-fast bacilli. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
The presentation of a cavitary lesion in the lung, chronic cough, weight loss, and positive sputum acid-fast bacilli is highly suggestive of tuberculosis (TB), especially in a high-risk individual like a smoker. Options b, c, and d represent other possible diagnoses but are less likely given the clinical and radiological findings.
Incorrect
The presentation of a cavitary lesion in the lung, chronic cough, weight loss, and positive sputum acid-fast bacilli is highly suggestive of tuberculosis (TB), especially in a high-risk individual like a smoker. Options b, c, and d represent other possible diagnoses but are less likely given the clinical and radiological findings.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Scenario: Ms. Rodriguez, a 35-year-old woman, presents with fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, and constipation. On examination, she has bradycardia, dry skin, and delayed relaxation of deep tendon reflexes. Laboratory tests show elevated TSH levels and low free T4 levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
The clinical presentation of fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, constipation, bradycardia, dry skin, and elevated TSH with low free T4 levels is consistent with primary hypothyroidism, which is the most common cause of hypothyroidism. Options b, c, and d represent other thyroid disorders but do not match the clinical scenario provided.
Incorrect
The clinical presentation of fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, constipation, bradycardia, dry skin, and elevated TSH with low free T4 levels is consistent with primary hypothyroidism, which is the most common cause of hypothyroidism. Options b, c, and d represent other thyroid disorders but do not match the clinical scenario provided.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
A patient presents with acute onset of severe headache, photophobia, neck stiffness, and fever. Kernig’s and Brudzinski’s signs are positive on examination. Lumbar puncture reveals elevated white blood cell count, elevated protein, and decreased glucose in the cerebrospinal fluid. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
The clinical presentation of acute severe headache, photophobia, neck stiffness, fever, positive Kernig’s and Brudzinski’s signs, along with abnormal CSF findings (elevated WBC, elevated protein, decreased glucose) is highly suggestive of bacterial meningitis, which is a medical emergency. Options a, c, and d represent other neurological conditions but are not consistent with the clinical features and CSF findings of bacterial meningitis.
Incorrect
The clinical presentation of acute severe headache, photophobia, neck stiffness, fever, positive Kernig’s and Brudzinski’s signs, along with abnormal CSF findings (elevated WBC, elevated protein, decreased glucose) is highly suggestive of bacterial meningitis, which is a medical emergency. Options a, c, and d represent other neurological conditions but are not consistent with the clinical features and CSF findings of bacterial meningitis.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
45-year-old female presents with epigastric pain that worsens after eating fatty meals. She also experiences nausea, bloating, and occasional vomiting. On physical examination, there is tenderness in the epigastric region. Laboratory tests show elevated serum amylase and lipase levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
The clinical presentation of epigastric pain after fatty meals, nausea, vomiting, and elevated serum amylase and lipase levels is indicative of pancreatitis, which is inflammation of the pancreas. Options a, c, and d represent other gastrointestinal conditions but do not match the clinical features and laboratory findings of pancreatitis.
Incorrect
The clinical presentation of epigastric pain after fatty meals, nausea, vomiting, and elevated serum amylase and lipase levels is indicative of pancreatitis, which is inflammation of the pancreas. Options a, c, and d represent other gastrointestinal conditions but do not match the clinical features and laboratory findings of pancreatitis.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Scenario: Mr. Johnson, a 60-year-old man, presents with lower back pain, hematuria, and a palpable mass in the left flank. Imaging studies reveal a left renal mass with areas of calcification. There is no evidence of metastasis. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct
In the context of a renal mass with hematuria and calcifications, the most appropriate next step is to perform a biopsy of the renal mass to determine the nature of the lesion and guide further management. Options a, c, and d represent alternative management strategies but are not the initial step in evaluating a renal mass.
Incorrect
In the context of a renal mass with hematuria and calcifications, the most appropriate next step is to perform a biopsy of the renal mass to determine the nature of the lesion and guide further management. Options a, c, and d represent alternative management strategies but are not the initial step in evaluating a renal mass.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
A 25-year-old woman presents with fluctuating mood swings, impulsivity, intense fear of abandonment, unstable relationships, and self-harming behaviors. She often experiences feelings of emptiness and has a history of multiple suicide attempts. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
The clinical presentation of mood instability, impulsivity, fear of abandonment, unstable relationships, self-harming behaviors, and a history of suicide attempts is characteristic of borderline personality disorder (BPD). Options b, c, and d represent other psychiatric conditions but do not align with the specific features of BPD.
Incorrect
The clinical presentation of mood instability, impulsivity, fear of abandonment, unstable relationships, self-harming behaviors, and a history of suicide attempts is characteristic of borderline personality disorder (BPD). Options b, c, and d represent other psychiatric conditions but do not align with the specific features of BPD.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
A 60-year-old female presents with fatigue, pallor, and easy bruising. Laboratory tests show a hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 110 fL, and low serum iron levels. Peripheral blood smear reveals macrocytic, normochromic red blood cells with hypersegmented neutrophils. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
The clinical presentation of fatigue, pallor, easy bruising, macrocytic red blood cells with hypersegmented neutrophils, elevated MCV, and low serum iron levels is characteristic of vitamin B12 deficiency anemia. Option a is incorrect because iron deficiency anemia typically presents with microcytic, hypochromic red blood cells. Options c and d are not associated with macrocytic anemia.
Incorrect
The clinical presentation of fatigue, pallor, easy bruising, macrocytic red blood cells with hypersegmented neutrophils, elevated MCV, and low serum iron levels is characteristic of vitamin B12 deficiency anemia. Option a is incorrect because iron deficiency anemia typically presents with microcytic, hypochromic red blood cells. Options c and d are not associated with macrocytic anemia.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Scenario: Mr. Anderson, a 45-year-old man, is brought to the emergency room by his family due to bizarre behavior and auditory hallucinations. He claims to hear voices telling him to harm himself. He has no history of psychiatric illness. On examination, he appears anxious and paranoid. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
Given the acute onset of auditory hallucinations and paranoid behavior in a patient with no history of psychiatric illness, the most likely diagnosis is substance-induced psychotic disorder, possibly due to a substance like amphetamines or hallucinogens. Option a (schizophrenia) requires a longer duration of symptoms, and options b and c do not fit the acute presentation without prior psychiatric history.
Incorrect
Given the acute onset of auditory hallucinations and paranoid behavior in a patient with no history of psychiatric illness, the most likely diagnosis is substance-induced psychotic disorder, possibly due to a substance like amphetamines or hallucinogens. Option a (schizophrenia) requires a longer duration of symptoms, and options b and c do not fit the acute presentation without prior psychiatric history.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
A patient presents with persistent hypercalcemia. Laboratory tests reveal elevated serum calcium levels, decreased serum phosphate levels, and elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels. Imaging studies show a solitary parathyroid adenoma. What is the underlying pathophysiology of this condition?
Correct
Primary hyperparathyroidism is characterized by elevated serum calcium levels, decreased serum phosphate levels, and elevated PTH levels due to autonomous secretion of PTH by a parathyroid adenoma. Options a, c, and d represent different conditions with distinct pathophysiological mechanisms that do not match the clinical and laboratory findings of primary hyperparathyroidism.
Incorrect
Primary hyperparathyroidism is characterized by elevated serum calcium levels, decreased serum phosphate levels, and elevated PTH levels due to autonomous secretion of PTH by a parathyroid adenoma. Options a, c, and d represent different conditions with distinct pathophysiological mechanisms that do not match the clinical and laboratory findings of primary hyperparathyroidism.