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Topics:
Comprehensive Osteopathic Medical Licensing Examination Level 2
Clinical Medicine and Patient Care
History taking and physical examination skills
Clinical reasoning and differential diagnosis
Diagnostic testing interpretation (labs, imaging studies)
Evidence-based medicine and clinical decision-making
Patient management and treatment planning
Palliative care and end-of-life issues
Osteopathic Principles and Practice (OPP)
Osteopathic manipulative treatment (OMT) techniques and applications
Osteopathic philosophy and principles in patient care
Osteopathic diagnosis and treatment integration with conventional medicine
Application of OMT in various clinical scenarios (musculoskeletal, respiratory, cardiovascular, etc.)
Internal Medicine
Cardiology
Pulmonology
Gastroenterology
Nephrology and urology
Endocrinology
Hematology
Infectious diseases
Rheumatology
Allergy and immunology
Surgery
General surgery principles
Surgical techniques and procedures
Trauma management
Orthopedic surgery
Neurosurgery
Cardiothoracic surgery
Vascular surgery
Pediatric surgery
Obstetrics and Gynecology
Obstetric care and management
Gynecologic conditions and treatments
Reproductive endocrinology
Family planning and contraception
Pregnancy complications and high-risk obstetrics
Pediatrics
Growth and development
Common pediatric illnesses and conditions
Immunization schedules and preventive care
Pediatric emergencies and resuscitation
Pediatric pharmacology and dosing
Psychiatry
Psychiatric assessment and diagnosis
Psychopharmacology
Psychotherapy modalities
Substance use disorders and addiction
Psychiatric emergencies and crisis intervention
Neurology
Neurological examination and assessment
Neurological disorders (e.g., stroke, epilepsy, Parkinson’s disease)
Neuroimaging interpretation
Neurological emergencies and acute management
Emergency Medicine
Emergency assessment and triage
Trauma management
Resuscitation techniques (including advanced cardiac life support)
Critical care principles
Disaster medicine
Public Health and Preventive Medicine
Epidemiology and biostatistics
Health promotion and disease prevention strategies
Population health management
Environmental health and occupational medicine
Healthcare policy and advocacy
Ethics, Professionalism, and Legal Issues
Medical ethics and moral reasoning
Professional responsibilities and boundaries
Informed consent and patient autonomy
Legal aspects of medical practice (malpractice, liability)
Healthcare disparities and cultural competence
Research and Evidence-Based Medicine
Study design and research methodology
Critical appraisal of medical literature
Research ethics and responsible conduct of research
Translating research into clinical practice
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Mr. Thompson, a 55-year-old male with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes, presents with complaints of increasing fatigue and shortness of breath on exertion. On physical examination, you note bilateral pitting edema up to the knees, jugular venous distension, and crackles in the lung bases. Laboratory tests show elevated B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) levels and an echocardiogram reveals decreased left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) with dilated ventricles. What is the most appropriate initial management for Mr. Thompson’s condition?
Correct
The presentation is consistent with congestive heart failure (CHF) exacerbation. Initial management focuses on reducing fluid overload with diuretics to alleviate symptoms and improve cardiac function. Beta-blockers are used in stable CHF, anticoagulation is indicated in specific cases such as atrial fibrillation, and coronary angiography is not the immediate priority unless there are signs of acute coronary syndrome.
Incorrect
The presentation is consistent with congestive heart failure (CHF) exacerbation. Initial management focuses on reducing fluid overload with diuretics to alleviate symptoms and improve cardiac function. Beta-blockers are used in stable CHF, anticoagulation is indicated in specific cases such as atrial fibrillation, and coronary angiography is not the immediate priority unless there are signs of acute coronary syndrome.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Ms. Garcia, a 28-year-old woman, presents with symptoms of depressed mood, anhedonia, significant weight loss, insomnia, and feelings of guilt. She denies any suicidal ideation. On further assessment, you note psychomotor agitation and psychomotor retardation at different times during the interview. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacological intervention for Ms. Garcia?
Correct
Given Ms. Garcia’s symptoms and absence of suicidal ideation, an SNRI like venlafaxine would be a suitable first-line option due to its efficacy in treating both depression and anxiety symptoms. SSRIs are also commonly used but may not address agitation as effectively as SNRIs. TCAs and MAOIs are typically reserved for cases refractory to first-line treatments due to their side effect profiles and potential drug interactions.
Incorrect
Given Ms. Garcia’s symptoms and absence of suicidal ideation, an SNRI like venlafaxine would be a suitable first-line option due to its efficacy in treating both depression and anxiety symptoms. SSRIs are also commonly used but may not address agitation as effectively as SNRIs. TCAs and MAOIs are typically reserved for cases refractory to first-line treatments due to their side effect profiles and potential drug interactions.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Dr. Patel is evaluating a 42-year-old patient with chronic low back pain and restricted lumbar range of motion. The patient reports no history of trauma but mentions occasional episodes of sciatica-like symptoms. On examination, you note tenderness over the left sacroiliac joint (SIJ) and positive findings on the FABER test. What OMT technique would be most appropriate for addressing this patient’s sacroiliac dysfunction?
Correct
BLT is a gentle technique used in OMT to address sacroiliac dysfunction by balancing tension in the ligaments around the joint. It aims to restore proper alignment and function without high-velocity maneuvers that may be contraindicated in certain patients. MET and HVLA are also OMT techniques but are not specifically tailored for sacroiliac dysfunction, while myofascial release targets soft tissue rather than joint mechanics.
Incorrect
BLT is a gentle technique used in OMT to address sacroiliac dysfunction by balancing tension in the ligaments around the joint. It aims to restore proper alignment and function without high-velocity maneuvers that may be contraindicated in certain patients. MET and HVLA are also OMT techniques but are not specifically tailored for sacroiliac dysfunction, while myofascial release targets soft tissue rather than joint mechanics.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Mrs. Davis, a 60-year-old female, presents with a 2-day history of severe right lower quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. On examination, she has rebound tenderness and guarding in the right lower quadrant. Laboratory tests show leukocytosis and imaging reveals a swollen appendix with periappendiceal fluid collection. What is the most appropriate next step in management for Mrs. Davis?
Correct
The clinical presentation is consistent with acute appendicitis, a surgical emergency requiring immediate appendectomy to prevent perforation and complications. Antibiotics alone are not sufficient for definitive treatment. Diagnostic laparoscopy may be considered in equivocal cases but is not the initial management of choice. Fluids and pain management are supportive measures but do not address the underlying condition.
Incorrect
The clinical presentation is consistent with acute appendicitis, a surgical emergency requiring immediate appendectomy to prevent perforation and complications. Antibiotics alone are not sufficient for definitive treatment. Diagnostic laparoscopy may be considered in equivocal cases but is not the initial management of choice. Fluids and pain management are supportive measures but do not address the underlying condition.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Dr. Lee is managing a pregnant patient with a history of autoimmune thrombocytopenia. Her platelet count is currently 85,000/μL, and she is in her third trimester without any bleeding complications. What is the most appropriate management strategy for this patient during labor and delivery?
Correct
In a pregnant patient with autoimmune thrombocytopenia and a platelet count above 50,000/μL without bleeding complications, the focus is on close monitoring of platelet levels during labor. Corticosteroids may be considered to increase platelet production. IVIG is reserved for severe cases or when platelet counts drop significantly. Elective cesarean section is not indicated unless there are other obstetric concerns.
Incorrect
In a pregnant patient with autoimmune thrombocytopenia and a platelet count above 50,000/μL without bleeding complications, the focus is on close monitoring of platelet levels during labor. Corticosteroids may be considered to increase platelet production. IVIG is reserved for severe cases or when platelet counts drop significantly. Elective cesarean section is not indicated unless there are other obstetric concerns.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Dr. Hernandez is evaluating a 6-month-old infant presenting with persistent wheezing, coughing, and recurrent respiratory infections. The parents report a family history of asthma. On examination, you note wheezing on auscultation and increased respiratory rate. What is the most appropriate initial step in managing this infant’s respiratory symptoms?
Correct
Given the clinical presentation suggestive of reactive airway disease (possibly asthma), a trial of bronchodilator therapy such as albuterol would be appropriate as the initial step. Inhaled corticosteroids are considered for persistent symptoms. Chest X-ray may be indicated if there are concerns about structural issues, and genetic testing for primary ciliary dyskinesia is typically reserved for specific diagnostic scenarios.
Incorrect
Given the clinical presentation suggestive of reactive airway disease (possibly asthma), a trial of bronchodilator therapy such as albuterol would be appropriate as the initial step. Inhaled corticosteroids are considered for persistent symptoms. Chest X-ray may be indicated if there are concerns about structural issues, and genetic testing for primary ciliary dyskinesia is typically reserved for specific diagnostic scenarios.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
A 50-year-old man presents with sudden-onset right-sided weakness and facial droop. On examination, he has a right hemiparesis, hemisensory loss, and a deviation of the tongue to the right side. A CT scan reveals a left middle cerebral artery (MCA) infarct. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for acute management of this patient’s stroke?
Correct
The patient’s presentation is consistent with an acute ischemic stroke within the therapeutic window for thrombolysis (<4.5 hours). Intravenous alteplase is the standard of care for acute ischemic stroke to restore blood flow and minimize neurological deficits. Endovascular thrombectomy is considered for large vessel occlusions. Aspirin is initiated after thrombolysis, and anticoagulation is not indicated in the acute phase of ischemic stroke.
Incorrect
The patient’s presentation is consistent with an acute ischemic stroke within the therapeutic window for thrombolysis (<4.5 hours). Intravenous alteplase is the standard of care for acute ischemic stroke to restore blood flow and minimize neurological deficits. Endovascular thrombectomy is considered for large vessel occlusions. Aspirin is initiated after thrombolysis, and anticoagulation is not indicated in the acute phase of ischemic stroke.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
A community health clinic is implementing a vaccination program for adolescents. Which of the following vaccines is recommended for routine administration to adolescents as part of the immunization schedule?
Correct
The HPV vaccine is recommended for routine administration to adolescents to protect against HPV infections, which can lead to cervical cancer and other HPV-related diseases. MCV4 is indicated for meningococcal disease prevention, HepA for hepatitis A prevention, and Var for varicella prevention but are not routinely given to all adolescents.
Incorrect
The HPV vaccine is recommended for routine administration to adolescents to protect against HPV infections, which can lead to cervical cancer and other HPV-related diseases. MCV4 is indicated for meningococcal disease prevention, HepA for hepatitis A prevention, and Var for varicella prevention but are not routinely given to all adolescents.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Dr. Rodriguez is managing a 70-year-old male patient with advanced dementia residing in a long-term care facility. The patient has recurrent episodes of agitation and aggression, especially during personal care activities. What is the most appropriate initial approach to managing the behavioral symptoms in this patient?
Correct
For behavioral symptoms in dementia, non-pharmacological interventions like environmental modifications (e.g., reducing noise, maintaining a consistent routine) are preferred as initial strategies. Antipsychotics should be reserved for severe cases due to their side effects. Comprehensive testing may guide long-term management, and physical restraints are not recommended except in exceptional circumstances.
Incorrect
For behavioral symptoms in dementia, non-pharmacological interventions like environmental modifications (e.g., reducing noise, maintaining a consistent routine) are preferred as initial strategies. Antipsychotics should be reserved for severe cases due to their side effects. Comprehensive testing may guide long-term management, and physical restraints are not recommended except in exceptional circumstances.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Mrs. Smith, a 35-year-old pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation, presents to the clinic with complaints of severe lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She has a history of placenta previa diagnosed earlier in pregnancy. On examination, you note signs of hypovolemic shock. What is the most appropriate immediate management for Mrs. Smith?
Correct
In the setting of placenta previa with severe bleeding and signs of shock, immediate cesarean section delivery is indicated to save both maternal and fetal lives. Tocolytic therapy is contraindicated in placenta previa due to the risk of increasing bleeding. Bedside ultrasound may provide additional information but does not delay the need for urgent delivery. Intravenous fluids and blood products are supportive measures but do not address the underlying cause.
Incorrect
In the setting of placenta previa with severe bleeding and signs of shock, immediate cesarean section delivery is indicated to save both maternal and fetal lives. Tocolytic therapy is contraindicated in placenta previa due to the risk of increasing bleeding. Bedside ultrasound may provide additional information but does not delay the need for urgent delivery. Intravenous fluids and blood products are supportive measures but do not address the underlying cause.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
A 45-year-old man presents with acute-onset right-sided weakness and slurred speech. His past medical history is significant for hypertension and diabetes mellitus. On examination, he has right-sided hemiparesis and facial droop. A CT scan shows a left middle cerebral artery (MCA) infarct. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient’s ischemic stroke?
Correct
In acute ischemic stroke within the therapeutic window, intravenous alteplase is the standard of care to restore blood flow and minimize neurological deficits. Aspirin and statin therapy are adjuncts after thrombolysis. Endovascular thrombectomy is considered for large vessel occlusions beyond the thrombolysis window. Observation without intervention increases the risk of disability and complications.
Incorrect
In acute ischemic stroke within the therapeutic window, intravenous alteplase is the standard of care to restore blood flow and minimize neurological deficits. Aspirin and statin therapy are adjuncts after thrombolysis. Endovascular thrombectomy is considered for large vessel occlusions beyond the thrombolysis window. Observation without intervention increases the risk of disability and complications.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
A public health agency is investigating a cluster of foodborne illness cases in a community. The epidemiological investigation identifies a common restaurant as the likely source of the outbreak. What is the most appropriate action for the public health agency to take?
Correct
When a restaurant is identified as a likely source of a foodborne outbreak, a thorough inspection of the premises and food handling practices is crucial to identify potential sources of contamination and prevent further cases. Public warnings and surveillance are important but should be complemented by direct actions to address the source of the problem. Collaborating with the restaurant for improvement is also beneficial but should not delay immediate actions to ensure food safety.
Incorrect
When a restaurant is identified as a likely source of a foodborne outbreak, a thorough inspection of the premises and food handling practices is crucial to identify potential sources of contamination and prevent further cases. Public warnings and surveillance are important but should be complemented by direct actions to address the source of the problem. Collaborating with the restaurant for improvement is also beneficial but should not delay immediate actions to ensure food safety.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
A 65-year-old female with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with progressive dyspnea on exertion, non-productive cough, and fatigue. On examination, you note digital clubbing and bilateral fine crackles on auscultation. Pulmonary function tests reveal a restrictive pattern. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient’s respiratory symptoms?
Correct
Rheumatoid arthritis can lead to interstitial lung disease (ILD) characterized by progressive dyspnea, cough, crackles, and restrictive lung function on tests. Pulmonary embolism typically presents with acute-onset dyspnea and can have risk factors such as immobility. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is a chronic fibrotic lung disease. COPD presents with chronic cough, sputum production, and airflow limitation.
Incorrect
Rheumatoid arthritis can lead to interstitial lung disease (ILD) characterized by progressive dyspnea, cough, crackles, and restrictive lung function on tests. Pulmonary embolism typically presents with acute-onset dyspnea and can have risk factors such as immobility. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is a chronic fibrotic lung disease. COPD presents with chronic cough, sputum production, and airflow limitation.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Ms. Anderson brings her 4-month-old infant to the clinic due to persistent crying and difficulty feeding. The baby appears irritable, has a distended abdomen, and passes foul-smelling, oily stools. Ms. Anderson reports that she has been breastfeeding exclusively. What is the most likely diagnosis for this infant’s symptoms?
Correct
The infant’s symptoms, including irritability, distended abdomen, foul-smelling stools, and breastfeeding history, are consistent with cow’s milk protein allergy. Lactose intolerance typically presents later in childhood. Celiac disease manifests with malabsorption and gluten intolerance. Hirschsprung’s disease presents with constipation and bowel obstruction in neonates.
Incorrect
The infant’s symptoms, including irritability, distended abdomen, foul-smelling stools, and breastfeeding history, are consistent with cow’s milk protein allergy. Lactose intolerance typically presents later in childhood. Celiac disease manifests with malabsorption and gluten intolerance. Hirschsprung’s disease presents with constipation and bowel obstruction in neonates.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
A 30-year-old woman presents with a history of recurrent depressive episodes, anxiety, and poor response to multiple antidepressant medications. She reports feeling hopeless and having passive suicidal ideation. On examination, you note psychomotor retardation and reduced affect. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient’s condition?
Correct
Given the severity of the patient’s symptoms, poor response to medications, and suicidal ideation, ECT is indicated for rapid improvement. Switching antidepressants or adding augmentation therapy may not be effective in severe cases. CBT is beneficial but may not provide immediate relief in acute situations like this. ECT is considered safe and effective for treatment-resistant depression with suicidal risk.
Incorrect
Given the severity of the patient’s symptoms, poor response to medications, and suicidal ideation, ECT is indicated for rapid improvement. Switching antidepressants or adding augmentation therapy may not be effective in severe cases. CBT is beneficial but may not provide immediate relief in acute situations like this. ECT is considered safe and effective for treatment-resistant depression with suicidal risk.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
A 55-year-old male presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset severe chest pain radiating to his back. He is diaphoretic and hypotensive. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. What is the most appropriate immediate management for this patient’s condition?
Correct
The patient’s presentation with ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) requires emergent reperfusion therapy. PCI is the preferred method for revascularization in STEMI, providing rapid and effective restoration of blood flow. Thrombolysis may be considered if PCI is not available within a timely manner. Aspirin and heparin are part of the management but are secondary to reperfusion strategies.
Incorrect
The patient’s presentation with ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) requires emergent reperfusion therapy. PCI is the preferred method for revascularization in STEMI, providing rapid and effective restoration of blood flow. Thrombolysis may be considered if PCI is not available within a timely manner. Aspirin and heparin are part of the management but are secondary to reperfusion strategies.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Mr. Roberts, a 42-year-old man, presents with a history of bipolar disorder. He reports a recent manic episode with decreased need for sleep, racing thoughts, increased goal-directed activity, and excessive spending. He has insight into his condition and expresses concern about potential harm to himself or others. What is the most appropriate initial intervention for Mr. Roberts?
Correct
In the setting of a manic episode with insight and no immediate risk of harm, establishing a safety plan and ensuring close outpatient follow-up are initial priorities. Mood-stabilizing medications are indicated for ongoing management but may not require immediate initiation. Inpatient admission is reserved for severe cases or imminent safety concerns. Psychoeducation and therapy support long-term stability.
Incorrect
In the setting of a manic episode with insight and no immediate risk of harm, establishing a safety plan and ensuring close outpatient follow-up are initial priorities. Mood-stabilizing medications are indicated for ongoing management but may not require immediate initiation. Inpatient admission is reserved for severe cases or imminent safety concerns. Psychoeducation and therapy support long-term stability.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
A 65-year-old male with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with a palpable right upper quadrant mass and jaundice. Imaging reveals a large hepatic tumor with no evidence of metastasis. What is the most appropriate management approach for this patient’s condition?
Correct
In a patient with a localized hepatic tumor and no evidence of metastasis, surgical resection offers the best chance for curative treatment and improved survival. Chemotherapy is typically reserved for metastatic disease. RFA may be considered for smaller tumors or as adjunctive therapy. Monitoring without intervention is not appropriate given the potential for disease progression and complications.
Incorrect
In a patient with a localized hepatic tumor and no evidence of metastasis, surgical resection offers the best chance for curative treatment and improved survival. Chemotherapy is typically reserved for metastatic disease. RFA may be considered for smaller tumors or as adjunctive therapy. Monitoring without intervention is not appropriate given the potential for disease progression and complications.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
A 60-year-old woman presents with a sudden-onset severe headache, nausea, and photophobia. On examination, she has neck stiffness and positive Brudzinski’s and Kernig’s signs. A lumbar puncture confirms elevated opening pressure and cloudy cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient’s condition?
Correct
The patient’s symptoms, signs, and CSF findings are consistent with meningitis. Meningitis presents with severe headache, neck stiffness, and positive meningeal signs. SAH may have a similar presentation but typically presents with a sudden-onset severe headache and may show xanthochromia in CSF. Migraine headaches lack signs of meningeal irritation. IIH presents with elevated intracranial pressure but typically lacks meningeal signs.
Incorrect
The patient’s symptoms, signs, and CSF findings are consistent with meningitis. Meningitis presents with severe headache, neck stiffness, and positive meningeal signs. SAH may have a similar presentation but typically presents with a sudden-onset severe headache and may show xanthochromia in CSF. Migraine headaches lack signs of meningeal irritation. IIH presents with elevated intracranial pressure but typically lacks meningeal signs.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
A 25-year-old man presents with a history of substance use disorder and multiple failed attempts at abstinence. He expresses motivation to quit but struggles with cravings and relapse triggers. Which therapeutic approach is most appropriate for helping this patient achieve sustained recovery?
Correct
DBT focuses on developing coping skills, emotion regulation, and mindfulness to manage cravings and triggers, making it effective for substance use disorders. CBT targets cognitive distortions but may not address emotional dysregulation effectively. MI is beneficial for enhancing motivation but may require adjunctive therapies. Psychodynamic therapy explores underlying issues but may not be the primary approach for substance use disorders.
Incorrect
DBT focuses on developing coping skills, emotion regulation, and mindfulness to manage cravings and triggers, making it effective for substance use disorders. CBT targets cognitive distortions but may not address emotional dysregulation effectively. MI is beneficial for enhancing motivation but may require adjunctive therapies. Psychodynamic therapy explores underlying issues but may not be the primary approach for substance use disorders.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
A 45-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents with sudden-onset severe chest pain radiating to his left arm. He is diaphoretic and anxious. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient’s condition?
Correct
The patient’s presentation with ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) requires emergent reperfusion therapy. PCI is the preferred method for revascularization in STEMI, providing rapid and effective restoration of blood flow. Thrombolysis may be considered if PCI is not available within a timely manner. Nitroglycerin and aspirin are part of the management but are secondary to reperfusion strategies.
Incorrect
The patient’s presentation with ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) requires emergent reperfusion therapy. PCI is the preferred method for revascularization in STEMI, providing rapid and effective restoration of blood flow. Thrombolysis may be considered if PCI is not available within a timely manner. Nitroglycerin and aspirin are part of the management but are secondary to reperfusion strategies.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Mr. Harris, a 60-year-old man, presents with sudden-onset abdominal pain and distension. He has a history of atrial fibrillation and takes warfarin for anticoagulation. On examination, he has signs of peritonitis. What is the most likely diagnosis for Mr. Harris, and how should it be managed?
Correct
Mr. Harris’s presentation with sudden-onset abdominal pain, peritonitis, and a history of atrial fibrillation on anticoagulation raises concern for mesenteric ischemia, which requires urgent surgical exploration for diagnosis and potential revascularization. Acute appendicitis typically presents with localized right lower quadrant pain. Diverticulitis with perforation may present similarly but requires confirmation with imaging. Acute cholecystitis presents with right upper quadrant pain.
Incorrect
Mr. Harris’s presentation with sudden-onset abdominal pain, peritonitis, and a history of atrial fibrillation on anticoagulation raises concern for mesenteric ischemia, which requires urgent surgical exploration for diagnosis and potential revascularization. Acute appendicitis typically presents with localized right lower quadrant pain. Diverticulitis with perforation may present similarly but requires confirmation with imaging. Acute cholecystitis presents with right upper quadrant pain.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
A 30-year-old woman presents for her first prenatal visit at 8 weeks gestation. She has a history of epilepsy and is currently taking valproate for seizure control. What is the most appropriate management strategy for this patient during pregnancy?
Correct
Valproate is associated with a higher risk of fetal malformations, including neural tube defects. Switching to lamotrigine or another antiepileptic with lower teratogenic potential is recommended before conception or early in pregnancy. Discontinuing antiepileptic medication can increase the risk of seizures, which can also harm the fetus. Folic acid supplementation is important but does not mitigate the risks associated with valproate.
Incorrect
Valproate is associated with a higher risk of fetal malformations, including neural tube defects. Switching to lamotrigine or another antiepileptic with lower teratogenic potential is recommended before conception or early in pregnancy. Discontinuing antiepileptic medication can increase the risk of seizures, which can also harm the fetus. Folic acid supplementation is important but does not mitigate the risks associated with valproate.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
A 5-year-old child presents with fever, sore throat, and cervical lymphadenopathy. On examination, you note tonsillar exudates and palatal petechiae. What is the most likely diagnosis, and which diagnostic test would confirm it?
Correct
The child’s presentation with fever, sore throat, exudates, and petechiae is suggestive of streptococcal pharyngitis. Rapid strep testing is the diagnostic method of choice for confirming streptococcal infection. Infectious mononucleosis is less likely given the absence of lymphocytosis and atypical lymphocytes. Viral pharyngitis is a consideration but less likely with the specific findings described. Allergic pharyngitis does not typically present with fever or exudates.
Incorrect
The child’s presentation with fever, sore throat, exudates, and petechiae is suggestive of streptococcal pharyngitis. Rapid strep testing is the diagnostic method of choice for confirming streptococcal infection. Infectious mononucleosis is less likely given the absence of lymphocytosis and atypical lymphocytes. Viral pharyngitis is a consideration but less likely with the specific findings described. Allergic pharyngitis does not typically present with fever or exudates.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Ms. Rodriguez, a 35-year-old woman, presents with depressed mood, anhedonia, fatigue, and decreased appetite. She reports feeling worthless and has had passive thoughts of suicide. On further inquiry, she describes feeling “not like herself” for the past 2 weeks. What is the most appropriate initial intervention for Ms. Rodriguez?
Correct
Given Ms. Rodriguez’s symptoms of depression and passive suicidal thoughts, conducting a suicide risk assessment and safety planning is the most immediate and critical intervention to ensure her safety. While medication and therapy are important components of treatment, addressing acute safety concerns takes precedence. A comprehensive psychiatric evaluation may follow after ensuring immediate safety.
Incorrect
Given Ms. Rodriguez’s symptoms of depression and passive suicidal thoughts, conducting a suicide risk assessment and safety planning is the most immediate and critical intervention to ensure her safety. While medication and therapy are important components of treatment, addressing acute safety concerns takes precedence. A comprehensive psychiatric evaluation may follow after ensuring immediate safety.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
A 50-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of unilateral throbbing headaches associated with photophobia, phonophobia, and nausea. He reports visual disturbances, including seeing flashing lights and blind spots, during some episodes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
The patient’s symptoms of unilateral throbbing headaches with visual disturbances, photophobia, phonophobia, and nausea are consistent with migraine with aura. Cluster headaches typically present with severe, unilateral pain around the eye with autonomic symptoms. Tension-type headaches are typically bilateral and non-throbbing. Sinus headaches are often overdiagnosed and are less common than other headache types.
Incorrect
The patient’s symptoms of unilateral throbbing headaches with visual disturbances, photophobia, phonophobia, and nausea are consistent with migraine with aura. Cluster headaches typically present with severe, unilateral pain around the eye with autonomic symptoms. Tension-type headaches are typically bilateral and non-throbbing. Sinus headaches are often overdiagnosed and are less common than other headache types.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
A 28-year-old woman presents with persistent sadness, loss of interest in activities, difficulty sleeping, and feelings of worthlessness. She denies any psychotic symptoms or suicidal thoughts. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in managing this patient?
Correct
Before initiating treatment, a comprehensive psychiatric evaluation is necessary to assess the severity of the symptoms, rule out other psychiatric conditions, and determine the most appropriate treatment approach. While medication and therapy are potential treatments, they should be based on a thorough assessment.
Incorrect
Before initiating treatment, a comprehensive psychiatric evaluation is necessary to assess the severity of the symptoms, rule out other psychiatric conditions, and determine the most appropriate treatment approach. While medication and therapy are potential treatments, they should be based on a thorough assessment.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Mrs. Anderson, a 34-year-old woman, presents at 32 weeks gestation with sudden-onset severe abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and fetal distress on ultrasound. On examination, she has signs of hypovolemic shock. What is the most likely diagnosis, and what immediate management is indicated?
Correct
Placental abruption presents with sudden-onset abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and fetal distress. It is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate delivery via emergency C-section to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Uterine rupture typically presents with more profound shock and requires surgical intervention. Preterm labor and ectopic pregnancy have different clinical presentations and management approaches.
Incorrect
Placental abruption presents with sudden-onset abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and fetal distress. It is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate delivery via emergency C-section to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Uterine rupture typically presents with more profound shock and requires surgical intervention. Preterm labor and ectopic pregnancy have different clinical presentations and management approaches.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
A 60-year-old man presents with progressive weakness in his legs, difficulty walking, and urinary incontinence. On examination, he has bilateral lower extremity weakness, increased tone, and hyperreflexia. MRI shows spinal cord compression at the level of T10-T11. What is the most likely diagnosis, and what is the initial management?
Correct
The patient’s symptoms and MRI findings are suggestive of spinal cord compression, likely due to a tumor. The initial management involves urgent referral for surgical resection to decompress the spinal cord and prevent further neurological deficits. Guillain-Barré syndrome presents with ascending weakness and is managed with IVIG or plasmapheresis. Lumbar disc herniation typically presents with radicular symptoms, and conservative management is often effective. High-dose corticosteroids are not indicated for spinal cord compression due to a tumor.
Incorrect
The patient’s symptoms and MRI findings are suggestive of spinal cord compression, likely due to a tumor. The initial management involves urgent referral for surgical resection to decompress the spinal cord and prevent further neurological deficits. Guillain-Barré syndrome presents with ascending weakness and is managed with IVIG or plasmapheresis. Lumbar disc herniation typically presents with radicular symptoms, and conservative management is often effective. High-dose corticosteroids are not indicated for spinal cord compression due to a tumor.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
A 2-month-old infant presents with poor feeding, irritability, and vomiting. On physical examination, you note a bulging fontanelle, lethargy, and a high-pitched cry. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis, and what diagnostic test would confirm it?
Correct
The infant’s symptoms of bulging fontanelle, lethargy, and high-pitched cry are concerning for meningitis. Confirmatory diagnosis is made through lumbar puncture and analysis of cerebrospinal fluid. GERD typically presents with regurgitation and does not cause bulging fontanelle or neurological symptoms. Infantile colic is characterized by excessive crying but does not present with bulging fontanelle or lethargy. Hydrocephalus may present with a bulging fontanelle but typically lacks the other neurological signs described.
Incorrect
The infant’s symptoms of bulging fontanelle, lethargy, and high-pitched cry are concerning for meningitis. Confirmatory diagnosis is made through lumbar puncture and analysis of cerebrospinal fluid. GERD typically presents with regurgitation and does not cause bulging fontanelle or neurological symptoms. Infantile colic is characterized by excessive crying but does not present with bulging fontanelle or lethargy. Hydrocephalus may present with a bulging fontanelle but typically lacks the other neurological signs described.