Quiz-summary
0 of 10 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
Information
Practice questions
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 10 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 10
1. Question
The normal thoracic spine has 20-50 degrees of kyphosis as measured from T3 to T12. A thoracic kyphosis in excess of the normal range of values is termed hyperkyphosis. From the following conditions choose the one which is not associated with hyperkyphosis?
Correct
Conditions associated with hyperkyphosis are Trauma causing spinal fractures, spinal infections resulting from bacterial, tuberculosis, and fungal diseases, metabolic diseases such as osteogenesis imperfecta or osteoporosis, iatrogenic (laminectomy, spinal irradiation), neuromuscular diseases, neoplasms, congenital/developmental, disorders of collagen such as Marfan syndrome, dysplasias such as neurofibromatosis, achondroplasia, and mucopolysaccharidoses.
Incorrect
Conditions associated with hyperkyphosis are Trauma causing spinal fractures, spinal infections resulting from bacterial, tuberculosis, and fungal diseases, metabolic diseases such as osteogenesis imperfecta or osteoporosis, iatrogenic (laminectomy, spinal irradiation), neuromuscular diseases, neoplasms, congenital/developmental, disorders of collagen such as Marfan syndrome, dysplasias such as neurofibromatosis, achondroplasia, and mucopolysaccharidoses.
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
Myotonic muscular dystrophy (Steinert disease) is the second most common muscular dystrophy in North America, Europe, and Australia inherited as an autosomal dominant trait. Of the following, the least recognized feature is?
Correct
Cardiac involvement is usually manifested as heart block in the Purkinje conduction system and arrhythmias (and sudden death) rather than as cardiomyopathy, unlike most other muscular dystrophies.
Incorrect
Cardiac involvement is usually manifested as heart block in the Purkinje conduction system and arrhythmias (and sudden death) rather than as cardiomyopathy, unlike most other muscular dystrophies.
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
The term congenital muscular dystrophy is misleading because all muscular dystrophies are genetically determined. A distinguishing feature of the congenital dystrophies from other muscular dystrophies, is a high association with malformations of?
Correct
Brain malformations, particularly disorders of cortical development such as lissencephaly/pachygyria and polymicrogyria, often complicated by severe epilepsy.
Incorrect
Brain malformations, particularly disorders of cortical development such as lissencephaly/pachygyria and polymicrogyria, often complicated by severe epilepsy.
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
Muscle denervation is any loss of nerve supply regardless of the cause. Of the following, the most specific clinical sign of denervation is?
Correct
Fasciculations of muscle, which might be frequently excellently seen withinside the tongue, are a sign of denervation. Sensory abnormalities suggest neuropathy. The fatigable weak point is the feature of neuromuscular junctional disorders. Myotonia is particular for some myopathies.
Incorrect
Fasciculations of muscle, which might be frequently excellently seen withinside the tongue, are a sign of denervation. Sensory abnormalities suggest neuropathy. The fatigable weak point is the feature of neuromuscular junctional disorders. Myotonia is particular for some myopathies.
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
Optic neuritis is inflammation or demyelinization of the optic nerve with attendant impairment of function, all the following may cause optic neuritis except?
Correct
Treatment of optic neuritis include high-dose intravenous methylprednisolone may help to speed the visual recovery in young adults, and it may prevent the development of multiple sclerosis in those at risk.
Incorrect
Treatment of optic neuritis include high-dose intravenous methylprednisolone may help to speed the visual recovery in young adults, and it may prevent the development of multiple sclerosis in those at risk.
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
During the last decade, there has been a dramatic shift in the treatment of retinoblastomas, by markedly reduced use of?
Correct
Because those children who are irradiated during their 1st year of life are 2-8 times more likely to develop second cancers than those irradiated after 1 year of age. Patients treated with radiation tend to develop brain tumors and sarcomas of the head and neck. Secondary cataracts can also develop from radiation.
Incorrect
Because those children who are irradiated during their 1st year of life are 2-8 times more likely to develop second cancers than those irradiated after 1 year of age. Patients treated with radiation tend to develop brain tumors and sarcomas of the head and neck. Secondary cataracts can also develop from radiation.
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
Second-line treatment for acute otitis media includes all the following agents except?
Correct
Drugs chosen for second-line treatment should be effective against β- lactamase–producing strains of non-typeable H. influenzae and M. catarrhalis and against susceptible and most non-susceptible strains of S. pneumoniae. Only 4 antimicrobial agents meet these requirements: amoxicillin-clavulanate, cefdinir, cefuroxime axetil, and intramuscular ceftriaxone.
Incorrect
Drugs chosen for second-line treatment should be effective against β- lactamase–producing strains of non-typeable H. influenzae and M. catarrhalis and against susceptible and most non-susceptible strains of S. pneumoniae. Only 4 antimicrobial agents meet these requirements: amoxicillin-clavulanate, cefdinir, cefuroxime axetil, and intramuscular ceftriaxone.
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
Topical corticosteroids are potent anti-inflammatory agents and effective antipruritic agents. From the following medium-potency, topical corticosteroids include?
Correct
Corticosteroids can be divided into 7 different categories on the basis of strength, but for practical purposes, 4 categories can be used: low, moderate, high, and super. Low-potency preparations include hydrocortisone, desonide, and hydrocortisone butyrate. Medium-potency compounds include amcinonide, betamethasone, flurandrenolide, fluocinolone, mometasone furoate, and triamcinolone. High-potency topical steroids include fluocinonide and halcinonide. Betamethasone dipropionate and clobetasol propionate are superpotent preparations and should be prescribed with care.
Incorrect
Corticosteroids can be divided into 7 different categories on the basis of strength, but for practical purposes, 4 categories can be used: low, moderate, high, and super. Low-potency preparations include hydrocortisone, desonide, and hydrocortisone butyrate. Medium-potency compounds include amcinonide, betamethasone, flurandrenolide, fluocinolone, mometasone furoate, and triamcinolone. High-potency topical steroids include fluocinonide and halcinonide. Betamethasone dipropionate and clobetasol propionate are superpotent preparations and should be prescribed with care.
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
Antibiotics are indicated for the treatment of patients whose acne has not responded to topical medications. From the following, choose the antibiotic that may cause bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes?
Correct
Rarely, minocycline causes dizziness, intracranial hypertension, bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes, hepatitis, a lupus-like syndrome, and drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms.
Incorrect
Rarely, minocycline causes dizziness, intracranial hypertension, bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes, hepatitis, a lupus-like syndrome, and drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms.
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
Does little evidence show that ingestion of the following foods can trigger acne flares?
Correct
Little proof suggests that ingestion of specific ingredients can cause pimples flares. When a patient is convinced that certain dietary items exacerbate acne, it is prudent for the patient to omit those foods.
Incorrect
Little proof suggests that ingestion of specific ingredients can cause pimples flares. When a patient is convinced that certain dietary items exacerbate acne, it is prudent for the patient to omit those foods.