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Certified Ethical Hacker Exam Practice Questions
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
The Internet Protocol (IP) is a protocol for routing and addressing packets of data so that they can travel across networks and arrive at the correct destination. The protocol header is one of the headers defined for IP. Which of the following statements defines the protocol header?
Correct
The protocol header is a numeric value indicating what the next protocol is. It is an 8-bit field and tells the receiving system what headers to look for in the transport header.
Incorrect
The protocol header is a numeric value indicating what the next protocol is. It is an 8-bit field and tells the receiving system what headers to look for in the transport header.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
There are several different logical and physical network topologies from which administrators can choose to build a secure, robust, and easily maintainable topology. One of the most popular configurations is the hybrid topology. Which of the following descriptions defines a hybrid topology?
Correct
A hybrid topology is a type of network topology that uses two or more differing network topologies. These topologies can include a mix of bus topology, mesh topology, ring topology, star topology, and tree topology. The two most commonly used types of hybrid topology are the following: Star-Ring hybrid topology and Star-Bus hybrid topology.
Incorrect
A hybrid topology is a type of network topology that uses two or more differing network topologies. These topologies can include a mix of bus topology, mesh topology, ring topology, star topology, and tree topology. The two most commonly used types of hybrid topology are the following: Star-Ring hybrid topology and Star-Bus hybrid topology.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Ethical hacking is an act of intruding into system or networks to find out threats and vulnerabilities in those systems which a malicious attacker may find and exploit causing loss of data, financial loss, or other major damages. It is consists of five phases. Which of the following sentences best describes the maintaining access phase?
Correct
The maintaining access phase involves installing a trojan or rootkit that can provide you with a backdoor, as well a the means to obscure your actions and existence on the system. It may also involve installing additional software on the system to maintain access. This may require copying the software onto your target system once you have done the initial compromise.
Incorrect
The maintaining access phase involves installing a trojan or rootkit that can provide you with a backdoor, as well a the means to obscure your actions and existence on the system. It may also involve installing additional software on the system to maintain access. This may require copying the software onto your target system once you have done the initial compromise.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Cloud computing is offered in three different service models which each satisfy a unique set of business requirements. These three models are known as Software as a Service (SaaS), Platform as a Service (PaaS), and Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS). Which of the following statements best describes PaaS?
Correct
A Platform as a Service (PaaS) vendor provides hardware and software tools over the internet, and people use these tools to develop applications. This means developers don’t need to start from scratch when creating applications, saving them a lot of time on writing extensive code. PaaS is a popular choice for businesses who want to create unique applications without spending a fortune or taking on all the responsibility.
Incorrect
A Platform as a Service (PaaS) vendor provides hardware and software tools over the internet, and people use these tools to develop applications. This means developers don’t need to start from scratch when creating applications, saving them a lot of time on writing extensive code. PaaS is a popular choice for businesses who want to create unique applications without spending a fortune or taking on all the responsibility.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Internet of Things (IoT) is a system of interrelated computing devices, mechanical and digital machines, objects, animals, or people that are provided with unique identifiers and the ability to transfer data over a network without requiring human-to-human or human-to-computer interaction. Which of the following is not part of IoT?
Correct
Any devices that have embedded software and also have network access are considered to be part of the Internet of Things (IoT). Essentially, anything that can be reached over the network that doesn’t have a built-in screen or the ability to take direct user interaction is part of the Internet of Things. Smartphones or general-purpose computers would not be part of the Internet of Things because they have traditional input/output devices like a screen and keyboard.
Incorrect
Any devices that have embedded software and also have network access are considered to be part of the Internet of Things (IoT). Essentially, anything that can be reached over the network that doesn’t have a built-in screen or the ability to take direct user interaction is part of the Internet of Things. Smartphones or general-purpose computers would not be part of the Internet of Things because they have traditional input/output devices like a screen and keyboard.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
The triad is a set of three attributes or properties that define what security is. The three elements are confidentiality, integrity, and availability. In 1998, Donn Parker extended the initial three properties by adding three more; it is called the Parkerian Hexad. What are the properties included in the Parkerian Hexad?
Correct
The Parkerian Hexad is a security model made up of six security attribute elements, originally proposed by Donn Parker in 1998.
It includes the following: Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability, Possession, Authenticity, and Utility.Incorrect
The Parkerian Hexad is a security model made up of six security attribute elements, originally proposed by Donn Parker in 1998.
It includes the following: Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability, Possession, Authenticity, and Utility. -
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Security devices and system-level mechanisms are some of the elements needed to create a complete defense of an enterprise. Organizations must also create policies, guidelines, standards, and procedures to ensure the security of an enterprise. Which of the following statements best defines guidelines?
Correct
Guidelines are suggestions on how policies may be implemented. A guideline may provide information about best practices, with the hope that the best practices may be followed.
Incorrect
Guidelines are suggestions on how policies may be implemented. A guideline may provide information about best practices, with the hope that the best practices may be followed.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
The purpose of an intrusion detection system (IDS) is to inform information security professionals that a network intrusion may be taking place. Alerting information will generally include information about the source address of the intrusion. the target address, and the type of attack that is suspected. There are two different types of IDS: host-based IDS and network IDS. Which of the following sentences is true about network IDS?
Correct
A network IDS is a system that analyzes incoming network traffic that passes by the network interface. Firewalls have the ability to block or allow packets in the network stream; a network IDS can take some of the same rules and generate log messages.
Incorrect
A network IDS is a system that analyzes incoming network traffic that passes by the network interface. Firewalls have the ability to block or allow packets in the network stream; a network IDS can take some of the same rules and generate log messages.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
The first step in a penetration test is gathering intelligence on the target. While there are ways and means to do this covertly, intelligence gathering usually starts with scraping information from public sources, collectively known as Open Source Intelligence (OSINT). One of the useful tools in gathering OSINT is the Pipl tool. Which of the following sentences best describes the Pipl tool?
Correct
Pipl is a free search tool that can be used to identify an online presence for someone. Pipl turns up a good number of addresses, phone numbers, along with links to public records, online mentions, and other useful pieces of information. It also has the ability to search within a specific city, state, or zip code. If you know the geographic location of the person in question, you’ll be able to narrow down the results in that area.
Incorrect
Pipl is a free search tool that can be used to identify an online presence for someone. Pipl turns up a good number of addresses, phone numbers, along with links to public records, online mentions, and other useful pieces of information. It also has the ability to search within a specific city, state, or zip code. If you know the geographic location of the person in question, you’ll be able to narrow down the results in that area.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
The Domain Name System (DNS) is also referred to as the phonebook of the internet. It is the internet’s system for converting alphabetic names into numeric IP addresses. One of the useful tools in conducting a DNS lookup is the host tool. Which of the following statements best describes the host tool?
Correct
The host tool is the easiest DNS lookup tool to use. This is a program that you will find on most Unix-like systems, including Linux Systems. If you don’t have it installed by default, you can probably get it installed. Using it is very straightforward; you just need to pass the hostname and you will get a response.
Incorrect
The host tool is the easiest DNS lookup tool to use. This is a program that you will find on most Unix-like systems, including Linux Systems. If you don’t have it installed by default, you can probably get it installed. Using it is very straightforward; you just need to pass the hostname and you will get a response.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Passive reconnaissance is an important tool for penetration testing and the beginning point of many data breaches. It involves gathering available public information that could be used to compromise the organization. One of the useful tools for conducting passive reconnaissance is the recon tool. Which of the following sentences best defines a recon tool?
Correct
Recon is a plug-in or extension for Chrome. It provides a context menu when you right-click on a link on a page. The recon menu gives you quick access to look up information about the link or word you have selected. You can also get the translation of words, do package tracking, search video sites, and perform several other quick searches where your selection is passed into the site you have selected from the menu.
Incorrect
Recon is a plug-in or extension for Chrome. It provides a context menu when you right-click on a link on a page. The recon menu gives you quick access to look up information about the link or word you have selected. You can also get the translation of words, do package tracking, search video sites, and perform several other quick searches where your selection is passed into the site you have selected from the menu.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Web applications are a common point of attack for adversaries who want to gather website intelligence. Several tools can be used in gathering website intelligence, one of which is the Wapplyzer plug-in. Which of the following sentences best describes the Wapplyzer plug-in?
Correct
Wapplyzer is a plug-in that can be added to both Chrome and Firefox. When you visit a website, it provides a list of technologies it identifies, including web servers, programming networks, ad networks, and tracking technology.
Incorrect
Wapplyzer is a plug-in that can be added to both Chrome and Firefox. When you visit a website, it provides a list of technologies it identifies, including web servers, programming networks, ad networks, and tracking technology.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Ping sweep tools can be useful in auditing networks, helping you identify inactive IP addresses, and determining which IP addresses map to live hosts in a DHCP environment. One of the most common tools that can perform a ping sweep is fping. Which of the following statements best defines fping?
Correct
Fping uses the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) echo request to determine if a target host is responding. It differs from ping in that you can specify any number of targets on the command line or specify a file containing the lists of targets to ping.
Incorrect
Fping uses the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) echo request to determine if a target host is responding. It differs from ping in that you can specify any number of targets on the command line or specify a file containing the lists of targets to ping.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) are transport protocols. TCP is more commonly used in port scanning and provides connection-oriented communication while UDP is a non-connection-oriented protocol that is sometimes used with services for which speed of transmission is more important than data integrity. There are different types of TCP scans that Nmap can perform, one of which is the FIN scan. Which of the following sentences best describes the FIN scan?
Correct
The FIN scan sends a packet with the FIN flag set without first establishing a connection with the target. If an RST packet is received from the target due to the way the RFC is written, the port is considered closed. If no packet is received at all, the port is considered open.
Incorrect
The FIN scan sends a packet with the FIN flag set without first establishing a connection with the target. If an RST packet is received from the target due to the way the RFC is written, the port is considered closed. If no packet is received at all, the port is considered open.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
The objective of performing a vulnerability scan is to create an overview of the security risks to a network and then use that overview as a guideline to resolve those threats. One of the useful tools in vulnerability scanning is the Security Auditors Research Assistant (SARA). Which of the following sentences describes SARA?
Correct
Security Auditors Research Assistant (SARA) is a network analysis tool for finding vulnerabilities in your network. It reports its findings via an integrated web server by running an analysis against its dictionary, which uses the Common Vulnerabilities and Exposure (CVE) dictionary.
Incorrect
Security Auditors Research Assistant (SARA) is a network analysis tool for finding vulnerabilities in your network. It reports its findings via an integrated web server by running an analysis against its dictionary, which uses the Common Vulnerabilities and Exposure (CVE) dictionary.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Packet crafting is the process of manually creating or editing the existing data packets on a network to test network devices. Hackers and network administrators use this process to test a network, check firewall rules, find entry points and test the network device’s behaviors. The packETH tool is one of the useful tools in crafting or otherwise manipulating the header data. Which of the following descriptions best defines a packETH tool?
Correct
The packETH tool is a GUI and CLI packet generator tool for ethernet. It allows you to create and send any possible packet or sequence of packets on the ethernet link. It is very simple to use, powerful and supports many adjustments of parameters while sending.
Incorrect
The packETH tool is a GUI and CLI packet generator tool for ethernet. It allows you to create and send any possible packet or sequence of packets on the ethernet link. It is very simple to use, powerful and supports many adjustments of parameters while sending.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Organizations have security mechanisms in place to defend themselves from intruders; this may be firewalls, intrusion detection systems, or intrusion prevention systems. Fortunately, some evasion techniques may help you get around these devices. What is this evasion technique wherein attackers use encryption to disguise what they are doing?
Correct
Hiding/Obscuring the data is an evasion technique wherein attackers use encryption to disguise what they are doing. Encrypted traffic can’t be investigated without violating the end-to-end nature of encryption. The goal with encryption is that the message is encrypted from the sender to the recipient without being decrypted at waypoints in between.
Incorrect
Hiding/Obscuring the data is an evasion technique wherein attackers use encryption to disguise what they are doing. Encrypted traffic can’t be investigated without violating the end-to-end nature of encryption. The goal with encryption is that the message is encrypted from the sender to the recipient without being decrypted at waypoints in between.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
The goal of enumeration is to get a complete picture of the target. In this phase, a penetration tester tries to identify valid user accounts or poorly-protected shared resources using active connections to systems. There are several protocols and tools that you would use during enumeration, one of which is the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP). Which of the following statements best defines SNMP?
Correct
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a protocol used for exchanging device management information between network devices on a TCP/IP network. It is most often used for collecting statistical and configuration information about network devices such as computers, hubs, switches, routers, and even network printers.
Incorrect
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a protocol used for exchanging device management information between network devices on a TCP/IP network. It is most often used for collecting statistical and configuration information about network devices such as computers, hubs, switches, routers, and even network printers.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Malware analysis is a study or process of determining the functionality, origin, and potential impact of a given malware. Several tools can be used in conducting malware analysis, one of which is the OllyDbg tool. Which of the following statements is true about OllyDbg?
Correct
OllyDbg is an x86 debugger that emphasizes binary code analysis, which is useful when source code is not available. It traces registers, recognizes procedures, API calls, switches, tables, constants, and strings, as well as locates routines from object files and libraries. It has a user-friendly interface, and its functionality can be extended by third-party plugins.
Incorrect
OllyDbg is an x86 debugger that emphasizes binary code analysis, which is useful when source code is not available. It traces registers, recognizes procedures, API calls, switches, tables, constants, and strings, as well as locates routines from object files and libraries. It has a user-friendly interface, and its functionality can be extended by third-party plugins.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Packet capture is a computer networking term for intercepting a data packet that is crossing or moving over a specific computer network. Once a packet is captured, it is stored temporarily so that it can be analyzed. One valuable tool used in packet capturing is the Berkeley Packet Filter (BPF). Which of the following sentences best defines BPF?
Correct
The Berkeley Packet Filter (BPF) is an interface to the Data Link layer of a system. It is used across many systems and applications, including tcdump, tshark, and Wireshark. It was developed in 1992, and its main task is to filter data packets from networks and embed them in the kernel. The BPF provides an interface with security layers for data content or programs. The security layers are responsible for ensuring reliable transmission of data packets and regulating access to these packets.
Incorrect
The Berkeley Packet Filter (BPF) is an interface to the Data Link layer of a system. It is used across many systems and applications, including tcdump, tshark, and Wireshark. It was developed in 1992, and its main task is to filter data packets from networks and embed them in the kernel. The BPF provides an interface with security layers for data content or programs. The security layers are responsible for ensuring reliable transmission of data packets and regulating access to these packets.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Several techniques can be used to conduct a website attack; one of the most effective techniques is the watering hole attack. Which of the following statements is true about the watering hole attack?
Correct
The watering hole attack refers to initiating an attack against targeted businesses and organizations. It is the method of gaining access to a website that a lot of people visit and introduce infected software to it.
Incorrect
The watering hole attack refers to initiating an attack against targeted businesses and organizations. It is the method of gaining access to a website that a lot of people visit and introduce infected software to it.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Even though Bluetooth technology provides a lot of advantages, its security level is considerably low since it uses radio frequencies to transmit data. Hackers can easily acquire personal information by conducting a Bluetooth attack. Some of these attacks are bluejacking, bluesnarfing, and blue bugging. Which of the following sentences defines bluejacking?
Correct
Bluejacking involves an attacker sending data to a Bluetooth-enabled device without having to get through the pairing process, or perhaps the pairing happened without the receiver knowing about it. You could use a bluejacking attack to send an unsolicited message to a victim. This could be a spoof attack, where you send a message that appears to be from someone else to get the recipient to do something. This attack uses the Object Exchange (OBEX) protocol to move the message or picture from one device to another.
Incorrect
Bluejacking involves an attacker sending data to a Bluetooth-enabled device without having to get through the pairing process, or perhaps the pairing happened without the receiver knowing about it. You could use a bluejacking attack to send an unsolicited message to a victim. This could be a spoof attack, where you send a message that appears to be from someone else to get the recipient to do something. This attack uses the Object Exchange (OBEX) protocol to move the message or picture from one device to another.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Websites depend on databases to deliver the required information to visitors. If a web application is not secure, then your entire database of sensitive information is at serious risk of a web application attack. One of the most common web application attacks is the command injection attack. Which of the following statements best defines the command injection attack?
Correct
The command injection attack is an attack in which the goal is the execution of arbitrary commands on the host operating system via a vulnerable application. Command injection attacks are possible when an application passes unsafe user-supplied data (forms, cookies, HTTP headers, etc.) to a system shell.
Incorrect
The command injection attack is an attack in which the goal is the execution of arbitrary commands on the host operating system via a vulnerable application. Command injection attacks are possible when an application passes unsafe user-supplied data (forms, cookies, HTTP headers, etc.) to a system shell.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Application exploitation is commonly done with invalid input being sent into the application, and the application doesn’t validate the input. One of the ways to change the flow of execution of a program is by conducting the heap spraying attack. Which of the following statements is true about the heap spraying attack?
Correct
Heap spraying is a technique used to aid the exploitation of vulnerabilities in computer systems. It is called “spraying the heap” because it involves writing a series of bytes at various places in the heap. The goal of the attack is to ensure that the bytes can be accessed later as the vector of a separate attack. Heap spraying attacks are demonstrated using JavaScript, VBScript, and HTML5.
Incorrect
Heap spraying is a technique used to aid the exploitation of vulnerabilities in computer systems. It is called “spraying the heap” because it involves writing a series of bytes at various places in the heap. The goal of the attack is to ensure that the bytes can be accessed later as the vector of a separate attack. Heap spraying attacks are demonstrated using JavaScript, VBScript, and HTML5.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
The attack life cycle helps businesses to detect and respond to threats early on to protect a network from large-scale impact. The earlier an attack is detected and mitigated, the less the ultimate cost to the business will be. Which of the following sentences describes the internal reconnaissance phase in the attack life cycle?
Correct
The internal reconnaissance phase is the fifth phase of the attack life cycle. In this phase, the attacker will get the lay of the land and identify other systems that they may be able to compromise.
Incorrect
The internal reconnaissance phase is the fifth phase of the attack life cycle. In this phase, the attacker will get the lay of the land and identify other systems that they may be able to compromise.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
A block cipher is a symmetric cryptographic algorithm that operates on a fixed-size block of data using a shared, secret key. Plaintext is used during the encryption, and the resulting encrypted text is called a ciphertext. An example of a block cipher that uses a symmetric key is the Data Encryption Standard (DES). Which of the following statements is true about DES?
Correct
The Data Encryption Standard (DES) was approved in the 1970s based on a cipher named Lucifer from IBM. One of the problems with DES is that it only uses a 56-bit key. The block size used for DES was 64 bits, though the key is only 56 bits. That’s because 8 bits of the key are used for parity.
Incorrect
The Data Encryption Standard (DES) was approved in the 1970s based on a cipher named Lucifer from IBM. One of the problems with DES is that it only uses a 56-bit key. The block size used for DES was 64 bits, though the key is only 56 bits. That’s because 8 bits of the key are used for parity.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Asymmetric key cryptography uses two keys for encryption and decryption, one key is the public key and the other is the private key. The public key is used to encrypt messages that only the private key can decrypt. One common algorithm that uses the public key cryptography is the Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA) algorithm. Which of the following sentences is true about RSA?
Correct
The Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA) algorithm is an algorithm that uses a key based on a pair of very large prime numbers. The key sizes used by RSA are 1024 bits, 2048 bits, and 4096 bits.
Incorrect
The Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA) algorithm is an algorithm that uses a key based on a pair of very large prime numbers. The key sizes used by RSA are 1024 bits, 2048 bits, and 4096 bits.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Public key encryption uses the public key to encrypt messages that only the private key can decrypt. The private key is the only key that needs to be protected in this scheme, which is fine because it is only needed to decrypt messages that have been sent using the corresponding public key. One approach that uses public-key cryptography is the Elliptic Curve Cryptography (ECC). Which of the following sentences best describes ECC?
Correct
Elliptic Curve Cryptography (ECC) generates security between pairs for public-key encryption by using the mathematics of elliptic curves. It has a smaller key size and has the ability to maintain security. ECC based its approach to public-key cryptographic systems on how elliptic curves are structured algebraically over finite fields. It is also considered to be the next-generation implementation of public-key cryptography and more secure than RSA.
Incorrect
Elliptic Curve Cryptography (ECC) generates security between pairs for public-key encryption by using the mathematics of elliptic curves. It has a smaller key size and has the ability to maintain security. ECC based its approach to public-key cryptographic systems on how elliptic curves are structured algebraically over finite fields. It is also considered to be the next-generation implementation of public-key cryptography and more secure than RSA.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Keys make cryptography work. It needs to be protected but doesn’t need to be stored beyond the sessions for which they are needed. It can be stored inside a data structure called a certificate. Which of the following statements best defines the certificate authority?
Correct
The certificate authority is a repository of certificates. It issues certificates to users, which means it collects information from the user and then generates the key to provide to the user. The certificate is stored in the authority and also provided to the user.
Incorrect
The certificate authority is a repository of certificates. It issues certificates to users, which means it collects information from the user and then generates the key to provide to the user. The certificate is stored in the authority and also provided to the user.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
The certificate authority can revoke certificates due to various reasons, one of which is if a user is no longer associated with the organization that manages the authority. Revoked certificates are managed through the use of the Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP). Which of the following sentences best describes OCSP?
Correct
The Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) was created as an alternative to certificate revocation lists (CRL), specifically addressing certain problems associated with using CRLs in public key infrastructure (PKI). It is an internet protocol used for obtaining the revocation status of an X.509 digital certificate and is described in RFC 6960.
Incorrect
The Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) was created as an alternative to certificate revocation lists (CRL), specifically addressing certain problems associated with using CRLs in public key infrastructure (PKI). It is an internet protocol used for obtaining the revocation status of an X.509 digital certificate and is described in RFC 6960.