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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
A patient presents for removal of an infected, embedded subcutaneous port. The physician removes the port and performs a complex closure due to the extent of the infection and tissue damage. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes should be reported?
Correct
This scenario involves a patient who presents for removal of an infected, embedded subcutaneous port. The physician performs a complex closure due to the extent of the infection and tissue damage. When coding for the removal of an embedded subcutaneous port, CPT code 36584 (Removal of tunneled central venous access device, without subcutaneous reservoir) is appropriate. Because the closure was complex, we must determine if it is separately reportable. According to CPT guidelines, complex repair (13101-13160) involves wound closure requiring layered closure, extensive undermining, stents, or retention sutures. If the documentation supports a complex closure, it can be reported separately. In this case, the appropriate code is 13101 (Repair, complex, trunk; 2.6 cm to 7.5 cm). Since the port was infected, we need to assign an appropriate ICD-10-CM code. T80.212A (Infection due to central venous catheter, initial encounter) accurately describes the infection related to the port. Therefore, the correct coding for this scenario is 36584, 13101, T80.212A.
Incorrect
This scenario involves a patient who presents for removal of an infected, embedded subcutaneous port. The physician performs a complex closure due to the extent of the infection and tissue damage. When coding for the removal of an embedded subcutaneous port, CPT code 36584 (Removal of tunneled central venous access device, without subcutaneous reservoir) is appropriate. Because the closure was complex, we must determine if it is separately reportable. According to CPT guidelines, complex repair (13101-13160) involves wound closure requiring layered closure, extensive undermining, stents, or retention sutures. If the documentation supports a complex closure, it can be reported separately. In this case, the appropriate code is 13101 (Repair, complex, trunk; 2.6 cm to 7.5 cm). Since the port was infected, we need to assign an appropriate ICD-10-CM code. T80.212A (Infection due to central venous catheter, initial encounter) accurately describes the infection related to the port. Therefore, the correct coding for this scenario is 36584, 13101, T80.212A.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Dr. Emmanuel Okoro performs an arthroscopic procedure on a patient’s left knee. During the procedure, he performs a medial meniscectomy and chondroplasty (debridement of articular cartilage) in the medial compartment. Which CPT code(s) should Dr. Okoro report?
Correct
This question tests the understanding of coding for arthroscopic procedures, particularly when multiple procedures are performed during the same surgical session. When multiple arthroscopic procedures are performed in the same joint, the primary (most extensive) procedure is coded first, and additional procedures are coded with modifier 51 (Multiple procedures). However, some CPT codes include “separate procedure” designations. According to CPT guidelines, a “separate procedure” code should *not* be reported when it is performed as an integral part of a more extensive procedure in the same anatomic site. In this case, 29881 (Arthroscopy, knee, surgical; with meniscectomy (medial OR lateral, including any meniscal shaving) including debridement/shaving of articular cartilage (chondroplasty), same or separate compartment(s), when performed) is the primary procedure. 29877 (Arthroscopy, knee, surgical; debridement/shaving of articular cartilage (chondroplasty)) is designated as a “separate procedure.” Since the chondroplasty was performed in the same compartment as the meniscectomy, it is considered an integral part of the 29881 and should not be coded separately. Modifier 51 is not appropriate because 29877 is bundled into 29881. Reporting only 29877 is incorrect as it doesn’t reflect the meniscectomy.
Incorrect
This question tests the understanding of coding for arthroscopic procedures, particularly when multiple procedures are performed during the same surgical session. When multiple arthroscopic procedures are performed in the same joint, the primary (most extensive) procedure is coded first, and additional procedures are coded with modifier 51 (Multiple procedures). However, some CPT codes include “separate procedure” designations. According to CPT guidelines, a “separate procedure” code should *not* be reported when it is performed as an integral part of a more extensive procedure in the same anatomic site. In this case, 29881 (Arthroscopy, knee, surgical; with meniscectomy (medial OR lateral, including any meniscal shaving) including debridement/shaving of articular cartilage (chondroplasty), same or separate compartment(s), when performed) is the primary procedure. 29877 (Arthroscopy, knee, surgical; debridement/shaving of articular cartilage (chondroplasty)) is designated as a “separate procedure.” Since the chondroplasty was performed in the same compartment as the meniscectomy, it is considered an integral part of the 29881 and should not be coded separately. Modifier 51 is not appropriate because 29877 is bundled into 29881. Reporting only 29877 is incorrect as it doesn’t reflect the meniscectomy.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Dr. Anya Sharma is treating a patient who underwent a complete resection of colon cancer three months ago. The pathology report confirmed complete removal with clear margins. The patient is now receiving adjuvant chemotherapy as a prophylactic measure to prevent recurrence. Which ICD-10-CM code(s) should be assigned for this encounter?
Correct
The correct coding assignment hinges on understanding the nuances of coding for neoplasms, specifically when the primary malignancy has been previously excised and the patient is now receiving chemotherapy for prophylactic purposes. According to ICD-10-CM guidelines, a history code (Z85.-) is appropriate when the primary malignancy has been excised or eradicated from a site and there is no current malignancy. However, when a patient is receiving active treatment, such as chemotherapy, to prevent recurrence or metastasis, the appropriate code is for the secondary malignancy, if known, or the primary malignancy if the secondary is not yet known. In this case, since the patient is undergoing chemotherapy post-excision of the colon cancer to prevent recurrence, the colon cancer code (C18.9) should be assigned. The Z85.038 (Personal history of other malignant neoplasm of large intestine) is not appropriate because the patient is receiving active treatment. The Z51.11 (Encounter for antineoplastic chemotherapy) indicates that the patient is receiving chemotherapy, but it does not specify the reason. D49.0 (Neoplasm of unspecified behavior of digestive system) is not appropriate because the colon cancer was malignant, not of unspecified behavior. C20 (Malignant neoplasm of rectum) is incorrect because the primary cancer was in the colon, not the rectum.
Incorrect
The correct coding assignment hinges on understanding the nuances of coding for neoplasms, specifically when the primary malignancy has been previously excised and the patient is now receiving chemotherapy for prophylactic purposes. According to ICD-10-CM guidelines, a history code (Z85.-) is appropriate when the primary malignancy has been excised or eradicated from a site and there is no current malignancy. However, when a patient is receiving active treatment, such as chemotherapy, to prevent recurrence or metastasis, the appropriate code is for the secondary malignancy, if known, or the primary malignancy if the secondary is not yet known. In this case, since the patient is undergoing chemotherapy post-excision of the colon cancer to prevent recurrence, the colon cancer code (C18.9) should be assigned. The Z85.038 (Personal history of other malignant neoplasm of large intestine) is not appropriate because the patient is receiving active treatment. The Z51.11 (Encounter for antineoplastic chemotherapy) indicates that the patient is receiving chemotherapy, but it does not specify the reason. D49.0 (Neoplasm of unspecified behavior of digestive system) is not appropriate because the colon cancer was malignant, not of unspecified behavior. C20 (Malignant neoplasm of rectum) is incorrect because the primary cancer was in the colon, not the rectum.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
A 68-year-old patient, Aaliyah, presents to her primary care physician complaining of a persistent cough. After a series of diagnostic tests, she is diagnosed with metastatic adenocarcinoma of the lung, with confirmed secondary deposits in the bone. According to ICD-10-CM coding guidelines, what is the correct coding sequence for this scenario?
Correct
The correct coding sequence hinges on understanding the interplay between the presenting symptom, the confirmed diagnosis, and the coding guidelines for neoplasms. In this case, the patient presents with a cough (a symptom). The diagnostic workup reveals metastatic adenocarcinoma of the lung (a confirmed diagnosis). According to ICD-10-CM guidelines, when a patient presents with a symptom and is subsequently diagnosed with a definitive condition, the definitive condition should be coded first. Furthermore, when the primary malignancy has metastasized, the primary malignancy should be coded first, followed by the secondary (metastatic) site. Therefore, the primary lung cancer should be coded first, followed by the metastatic site in the bone. The cough is not coded as the definitive diagnosis is known. Therefore, the correct sequence is lung cancer first, then bone metastasis.
Incorrect
The correct coding sequence hinges on understanding the interplay between the presenting symptom, the confirmed diagnosis, and the coding guidelines for neoplasms. In this case, the patient presents with a cough (a symptom). The diagnostic workup reveals metastatic adenocarcinoma of the lung (a confirmed diagnosis). According to ICD-10-CM guidelines, when a patient presents with a symptom and is subsequently diagnosed with a definitive condition, the definitive condition should be coded first. Furthermore, when the primary malignancy has metastasized, the primary malignancy should be coded first, followed by the secondary (metastatic) site. Therefore, the primary lung cancer should be coded first, followed by the metastatic site in the bone. The cough is not coded as the definitive diagnosis is known. Therefore, the correct sequence is lung cancer first, then bone metastasis.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Dr. Anya Sharma performed a laparoscopic cholecystectomy on Mr. Kenji Tanaka, a 72-year-old patient. Mr. Tanaka has a history of both chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and congestive heart failure (CHF). The operative report indicates the procedure was technically challenging due to Mr. Tanaka’s compromised respiratory and cardiac function, requiring significantly more time and resources than a typical laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Pre-operative assessment included a detailed review of his pulmonary and cardiac status. Based on this scenario, which of the following coding strategies is MOST accurate and compliant?
Correct
The scenario presents a complex situation involving a patient with multiple co-morbidities (COPD and CHF) undergoing a surgical procedure (laparoscopic cholecystectomy). The key to accurate coding lies in understanding the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, specifically those related to coding co-existing conditions and the appropriate sequencing of codes.
According to the ICD-10-CM guidelines, if the patient has both acute and chronic conditions, both should be coded. Typically, the reason for the encounter (in this case, cholecystitis leading to the cholecystectomy) is coded first. The chronic conditions (COPD and CHF) are then coded, reflecting their impact on the patient’s overall health and the complexity of the case. Assigning codes in the correct sequence demonstrates an understanding of the principal diagnosis and secondary diagnoses. The laparoscopic cholecystectomy is coded with a CPT code. Furthermore, modifier -22 may be appended to the CPT code if the surgical procedure was significantly more complex due to the patient’s COPD and CHF. This reflects the increased resources and time required for the procedure. Modifier -25 may be appended to the E/M code if a significant, separately identifiable E/M service was performed on the same day as the procedure. The coder must carefully review the documentation to ensure that all codes are supported and that the sequencing is accurate.
Incorrect
The scenario presents a complex situation involving a patient with multiple co-morbidities (COPD and CHF) undergoing a surgical procedure (laparoscopic cholecystectomy). The key to accurate coding lies in understanding the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, specifically those related to coding co-existing conditions and the appropriate sequencing of codes.
According to the ICD-10-CM guidelines, if the patient has both acute and chronic conditions, both should be coded. Typically, the reason for the encounter (in this case, cholecystitis leading to the cholecystectomy) is coded first. The chronic conditions (COPD and CHF) are then coded, reflecting their impact on the patient’s overall health and the complexity of the case. Assigning codes in the correct sequence demonstrates an understanding of the principal diagnosis and secondary diagnoses. The laparoscopic cholecystectomy is coded with a CPT code. Furthermore, modifier -22 may be appended to the CPT code if the surgical procedure was significantly more complex due to the patient’s COPD and CHF. This reflects the increased resources and time required for the procedure. Modifier -25 may be appended to the E/M code if a significant, separately identifiable E/M service was performed on the same day as the procedure. The coder must carefully review the documentation to ensure that all codes are supported and that the sequencing is accurate.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
A 68-year-old patient, Maria Rodriguez, presents to her physician complaining of persistent cough and shortness of breath. Her physician orders a chest X-ray, followed by a lung biopsy due to suspicious findings. The biopsy confirms metastatic adenocarcinoma. Review of Maria’s medical history reveals she was diagnosed with colon cancer five years prior and underwent a colectomy and adjuvant chemotherapy, completing treatment four years ago. The current documentation does not explicitly state that the lung metastasis is a direct result of the previous colon cancer. Based on ICD-10-CM coding guidelines, how should Maria’s diagnoses be coded and sequenced?
Correct
The correct coding assignment in this complex scenario involves understanding the interplay between the presenting symptoms, the confirmed diagnosis, and the established coding guidelines for neoplasms, specifically concerning primary and secondary malignancies. The patient presented with symptoms suggestive of a malignancy, leading to a diagnostic workup. The biopsy confirmed metastatic adenocarcinoma (secondary malignancy) in the lung. The crucial step is to determine the primary site of the cancer. The documentation indicates a previous diagnosis of colon cancer treated five years ago. Although the documentation doesn’t explicitly state the lung metastasis is *due to* the colon cancer, the history strongly suggests it. According to ICD-10-CM guidelines, when the primary malignancy has been previously treated and there is evidence of metastasis, the primary site should be coded first, followed by the secondary site. Therefore, code C18.9 (Malignant neoplasm of colon, unspecified) should be sequenced first, followed by C78.0 (Secondary malignant neoplasm of lung). The Z85.038 (Personal history of other malignant neoplasm of large intestine) is used to provide additional information about the patient’s history.
Incorrect
The correct coding assignment in this complex scenario involves understanding the interplay between the presenting symptoms, the confirmed diagnosis, and the established coding guidelines for neoplasms, specifically concerning primary and secondary malignancies. The patient presented with symptoms suggestive of a malignancy, leading to a diagnostic workup. The biopsy confirmed metastatic adenocarcinoma (secondary malignancy) in the lung. The crucial step is to determine the primary site of the cancer. The documentation indicates a previous diagnosis of colon cancer treated five years ago. Although the documentation doesn’t explicitly state the lung metastasis is *due to* the colon cancer, the history strongly suggests it. According to ICD-10-CM guidelines, when the primary malignancy has been previously treated and there is evidence of metastasis, the primary site should be coded first, followed by the secondary site. Therefore, code C18.9 (Malignant neoplasm of colon, unspecified) should be sequenced first, followed by C78.0 (Secondary malignant neoplasm of lung). The Z85.038 (Personal history of other malignant neoplasm of large intestine) is used to provide additional information about the patient’s history.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Dr. Anya Sharma, an internist, performs a well-woman examination on a 55-year-old patient in her office. During the visit, the patient mentions unexplained weight loss of 15 pounds over the past two months. Dr. Sharma performs an expanded problem focused history and examination to evaluate the weight loss, and orders blood work. How should this encounter be coded?
Correct
The correct coding assignment hinges on accurately reflecting the services provided, the setting, and the applicable coding guidelines. In this scenario, the patient is seen in the physician’s office (place of service 11). The key is to differentiate between a preventative service and an E/M service with a significant, separately identifiable E/M component. Since the patient presented with a new and concerning symptom (unexplained weight loss), the physician performed a problem-oriented E/M service in addition to the well-woman exam. This warrants reporting both a preventative medicine service code (99396) and an E/M code (99213) with modifier 25 appended to the E/M code. Modifier 25 signifies that the E/M service was a significant, separately identifiable service from the preventative service. The ICD-10-CM code R63.4 should be sequenced first as it represents the primary reason for the problem-oriented visit, followed by Z01.419 to indicate the well-woman examination without abnormal findings. Sequencing is critical to accurately reflect the reason for the encounter.
Incorrect
The correct coding assignment hinges on accurately reflecting the services provided, the setting, and the applicable coding guidelines. In this scenario, the patient is seen in the physician’s office (place of service 11). The key is to differentiate between a preventative service and an E/M service with a significant, separately identifiable E/M component. Since the patient presented with a new and concerning symptom (unexplained weight loss), the physician performed a problem-oriented E/M service in addition to the well-woman exam. This warrants reporting both a preventative medicine service code (99396) and an E/M code (99213) with modifier 25 appended to the E/M code. Modifier 25 signifies that the E/M service was a significant, separately identifiable service from the preventative service. The ICD-10-CM code R63.4 should be sequenced first as it represents the primary reason for the problem-oriented visit, followed by Z01.419 to indicate the well-woman examination without abnormal findings. Sequencing is critical to accurately reflect the reason for the encounter.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Dr. Anya Sharma, a family physician, sees Omar Hassan, an established patient, complaining of abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting for the past 3 days. Omar recently completed a course of broad-spectrum antibiotics for a sinus infection. Dr. Sharma suspects *Clostridioides difficile* infection (CDI) and orders a *C. difficile* toxin test. She also performs an appropriate level of E/M service. Assuming the *C. difficile* test is positive, what is the most accurate coding and billing combination, considering CPT, ICD-10-CM, and potential modifiers, assuming the E/M service is separately identifiable?
Correct
The correct coding depends on the specific documentation and the payer’s guidelines. The scenario describes a patient presenting with symptoms indicative of a potential gastrointestinal issue (abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting) and a history of recent antibiotic use, raising suspicion for *Clostridioides difficile* infection (CDI). The physician orders a *C. difficile* toxin test. If the test is positive, the appropriate ICD-10-CM code would be A04.7, *Clostridioides difficile* infection. If the test is negative, but the physician still suspects CDI based on clinical findings, a code for the symptoms (e.g., R10.84, Generalized abdominal pain; R11.2, Vomiting; R11.0, Nausea) would be assigned. The CPT code for the *C. difficile* toxin test will depend on the method used. For example, if it is an enzyme immunoassay (EIA), the code might be 87088. If it is a nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT), the code might be 87493. The E/M code (99213) is appropriate for an established patient presenting with these symptoms, assuming the history, examination, and medical decision-making meet the requirements for that level. Modifiers might be necessary based on the circumstances. For example, if the E/M service and the lab test are performed on the same day in the same setting, modifier 25 might be appended to the E/M code if it is a separately identifiable service. If the patient is on Medicare, the Advance Beneficiary Notice of Noncoverage (ABN) modifier GA may be needed.
Incorrect
The correct coding depends on the specific documentation and the payer’s guidelines. The scenario describes a patient presenting with symptoms indicative of a potential gastrointestinal issue (abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting) and a history of recent antibiotic use, raising suspicion for *Clostridioides difficile* infection (CDI). The physician orders a *C. difficile* toxin test. If the test is positive, the appropriate ICD-10-CM code would be A04.7, *Clostridioides difficile* infection. If the test is negative, but the physician still suspects CDI based on clinical findings, a code for the symptoms (e.g., R10.84, Generalized abdominal pain; R11.2, Vomiting; R11.0, Nausea) would be assigned. The CPT code for the *C. difficile* toxin test will depend on the method used. For example, if it is an enzyme immunoassay (EIA), the code might be 87088. If it is a nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT), the code might be 87493. The E/M code (99213) is appropriate for an established patient presenting with these symptoms, assuming the history, examination, and medical decision-making meet the requirements for that level. Modifiers might be necessary based on the circumstances. For example, if the E/M service and the lab test are performed on the same day in the same setting, modifier 25 might be appended to the E/M code if it is a separately identifiable service. If the patient is on Medicare, the Advance Beneficiary Notice of Noncoverage (ABN) modifier GA may be needed.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Dr. Anya Sharma evaluates a patient, Mr. Kenji Tanaka, presenting with persistent fatigue, unexplained weight loss, and intermittent low-grade fever. Dr. Sharma orders a comprehensive metabolic panel, complete blood count, and chest X-ray. While Dr. Sharma suspects possible lymphoma based on the patient’s symptoms, the diagnostic results are still pending. How should the coding professional initially approach coding this outpatient encounter, adhering to ICD-10-CM guidelines?
Correct
When coding for a patient encounter where a definitive diagnosis has not been established, but signs and symptoms are present, the primary coding focus shifts to accurately representing the patient’s condition as it is known at the time of the encounter. According to ICD-10-CM coding guidelines, it is inappropriate to code suspected conditions or “rule out” diagnoses in the outpatient setting. Instead, coders should assign codes for the documented signs, symptoms, abnormal test results, or other reasons for the visit. In this scenario, even if the physician suspects a particular underlying condition, the coding should reflect the presenting problems or findings that prompted the service. This approach ensures that the claim accurately reflects the services provided and the patient’s current health status, adhering to the principle of coding to the highest degree of certainty known at the time. Using codes that reflect only the documented observations is crucial for compliance and accurate data reporting, especially when the final diagnosis is pending further investigation or testing. This practice aligns with the need to avoid speculative coding and to represent the actual services rendered based on the information available.
Incorrect
When coding for a patient encounter where a definitive diagnosis has not been established, but signs and symptoms are present, the primary coding focus shifts to accurately representing the patient’s condition as it is known at the time of the encounter. According to ICD-10-CM coding guidelines, it is inappropriate to code suspected conditions or “rule out” diagnoses in the outpatient setting. Instead, coders should assign codes for the documented signs, symptoms, abnormal test results, or other reasons for the visit. In this scenario, even if the physician suspects a particular underlying condition, the coding should reflect the presenting problems or findings that prompted the service. This approach ensures that the claim accurately reflects the services provided and the patient’s current health status, adhering to the principle of coding to the highest degree of certainty known at the time. Using codes that reflect only the documented observations is crucial for compliance and accurate data reporting, especially when the final diagnosis is pending further investigation or testing. This practice aligns with the need to avoid speculative coding and to represent the actual services rendered based on the information available.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
A 68-year-old patient, Maria Rodriguez, is seen in the clinic for a follow-up appointment. She has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. The physician’s documentation indicates that she has developed diabetic neuropathy in her lower extremities and stage 3 chronic kidney disease (CKD) due to her diabetes. According to ICD-10-CM coding guidelines, what is the correct coding and sequencing for these conditions?
Correct
The correct coding and sequencing in this scenario requires a nuanced understanding of ICD-10-CM guidelines regarding the coding of conditions and their associated manifestations. The patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus, which is the underlying condition. The diabetic neuropathy and chronic kidney disease (CKD) are manifestations of the diabetes. According to ICD-10-CM guidelines, the underlying condition (diabetes) should be sequenced first, followed by the manifestation(s). Since the CKD is specified as being due to the diabetes, it is coded as diabetic nephropathy. The neuropathy is also specified as diabetic. The correct sequencing is therefore: E11.22 for type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic nephropathy, E11.40 for type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic neuropathy, unspecified. The E11.22 code encompasses both the diabetes and the CKD, reflecting the causal relationship. E11.40 captures the diabetic neuropathy. This sequencing accurately reflects the patient’s complete clinical picture, adhering to coding guidelines for diabetes and its complications. This ensures proper reimbursement and accurate data collection for epidemiological purposes.
Incorrect
The correct coding and sequencing in this scenario requires a nuanced understanding of ICD-10-CM guidelines regarding the coding of conditions and their associated manifestations. The patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus, which is the underlying condition. The diabetic neuropathy and chronic kidney disease (CKD) are manifestations of the diabetes. According to ICD-10-CM guidelines, the underlying condition (diabetes) should be sequenced first, followed by the manifestation(s). Since the CKD is specified as being due to the diabetes, it is coded as diabetic nephropathy. The neuropathy is also specified as diabetic. The correct sequencing is therefore: E11.22 for type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic nephropathy, E11.40 for type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic neuropathy, unspecified. The E11.22 code encompasses both the diabetes and the CKD, reflecting the causal relationship. E11.40 captures the diabetic neuropathy. This sequencing accurately reflects the patient’s complete clinical picture, adhering to coding guidelines for diabetes and its complications. This ensures proper reimbursement and accurate data collection for epidemiological purposes.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
A 72-year-old patient with a history of COPD is admitted to the hospital with increased shortness of breath and wheezing. The physician’s documentation indicates an acute exacerbation of COPD due to influenza A. Which of the following ICD-10-CM code sequences is MOST accurate, reflecting coding guidelines and conventions?
Correct
The correct coding assignment hinges on accurately capturing the patient’s condition and the services rendered. In this case, the patient presents with a chronic condition (COPD) exacerbated by an acute respiratory infection (influenza A). The ICD-10-CM coding guidelines mandate that the underlying chronic condition be coded along with the acute exacerbation. Furthermore, the specific type of influenza should be identified. Therefore, the COPD with acute exacerbation due to influenza A should be coded first to address the reason for the encounter, and then the influenza should be coded. When coding chronic conditions, the coding guidelines emphasize that the chronic condition should be coded as long as the patient is being treated for it. The coding assignment also depends on the documentation, and coders should always refer to the documentation. The coder should refer to the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting.
Incorrect
The correct coding assignment hinges on accurately capturing the patient’s condition and the services rendered. In this case, the patient presents with a chronic condition (COPD) exacerbated by an acute respiratory infection (influenza A). The ICD-10-CM coding guidelines mandate that the underlying chronic condition be coded along with the acute exacerbation. Furthermore, the specific type of influenza should be identified. Therefore, the COPD with acute exacerbation due to influenza A should be coded first to address the reason for the encounter, and then the influenza should be coded. When coding chronic conditions, the coding guidelines emphasize that the chronic condition should be coded as long as the patient is being treated for it. The coding assignment also depends on the documentation, and coders should always refer to the documentation. The coder should refer to the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
A 72-year-old patient with a known history of COPD presents to the clinic complaining of increased shortness of breath and a productive cough. The physician’s documentation states “Acute exacerbation of COPD with acute bronchitis.” Based on ICD-10-CM coding guidelines, what are the appropriate codes and their correct sequence for this encounter?
Correct
The correct coding pathway involves several considerations. First, identifying the primary diagnosis of acute exacerbation of COPD is crucial. J45.909 indicates unspecified asthma with acute exacerbation. J44.1 is the appropriate code for COPD with acute exacerbation. The documentation specifies COPD, not asthma, making J45.909 incorrect. Next, it’s important to capture the contributing factor of acute bronchitis. J20.9 represents acute bronchitis due to unspecified organism. Since the scenario doesn’t mention a specific organism, this is the correct code. Sequencing is also important; the COPD exacerbation is sequenced first because it is the primary reason for the encounter. Additional considerations include proper documentation practices and adherence to coding guidelines. The coder must understand the nuances of ICD-10-CM coding for respiratory conditions, including the differences between asthma and COPD, and how to code exacerbations and contributing factors accurately. The coder must also be aware of coding compliance regulations and the importance of accurate and complete documentation to support the codes assigned.
Incorrect
The correct coding pathway involves several considerations. First, identifying the primary diagnosis of acute exacerbation of COPD is crucial. J45.909 indicates unspecified asthma with acute exacerbation. J44.1 is the appropriate code for COPD with acute exacerbation. The documentation specifies COPD, not asthma, making J45.909 incorrect. Next, it’s important to capture the contributing factor of acute bronchitis. J20.9 represents acute bronchitis due to unspecified organism. Since the scenario doesn’t mention a specific organism, this is the correct code. Sequencing is also important; the COPD exacerbation is sequenced first because it is the primary reason for the encounter. Additional considerations include proper documentation practices and adherence to coding guidelines. The coder must understand the nuances of ICD-10-CM coding for respiratory conditions, including the differences between asthma and COPD, and how to code exacerbations and contributing factors accurately. The coder must also be aware of coding compliance regulations and the importance of accurate and complete documentation to support the codes assigned.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Dr. Anya Sharma is seeing a patient, Mr. David Chen, for an exacerbation of his chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Mr. Chen also mentions experiencing new onset dizziness, which Dr. Sharma evaluates and determines is unrelated to his COPD exacerbation and warrants further investigation. Which of the following represents the correct sequencing of ICD-10-CM codes for this encounter?
Correct
The correct sequencing of ICD-10-CM codes in a scenario involving both an acute condition and a chronic condition, along with a symptom, hinges on the specific circumstances and the coding guidelines. In general, if the acute condition prompted the encounter, it is sequenced first. The chronic condition is then sequenced after the acute condition if it is being treated or impacting the care for the current encounter. Symptoms are typically coded only when a definitive diagnosis hasn’t been established. If the symptom is integral to the acute or chronic condition, it is not coded separately. However, if the symptom is not routinely associated with the acute or chronic condition and is the focus of the visit, it may be coded. In cases where the reason for the encounter is solely to manage the chronic condition, that would be sequenced first. The key is to reflect the primary reason for the encounter and any other conditions being treated or investigated during that encounter. If the symptom is unrelated to either condition and is the primary focus, it takes precedence. The coding guidelines emphasize coding to the highest level of specificity and accurately reflecting the reason for the encounter.
Incorrect
The correct sequencing of ICD-10-CM codes in a scenario involving both an acute condition and a chronic condition, along with a symptom, hinges on the specific circumstances and the coding guidelines. In general, if the acute condition prompted the encounter, it is sequenced first. The chronic condition is then sequenced after the acute condition if it is being treated or impacting the care for the current encounter. Symptoms are typically coded only when a definitive diagnosis hasn’t been established. If the symptom is integral to the acute or chronic condition, it is not coded separately. However, if the symptom is not routinely associated with the acute or chronic condition and is the focus of the visit, it may be coded. In cases where the reason for the encounter is solely to manage the chronic condition, that would be sequenced first. The key is to reflect the primary reason for the encounter and any other conditions being treated or investigated during that encounter. If the symptom is unrelated to either condition and is the primary focus, it takes precedence. The coding guidelines emphasize coding to the highest level of specificity and accurately reflecting the reason for the encounter.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
During an office visit, a patient, Aaliyah, presents with persistent dyspnea and chest pain. The physician conducts a thorough examination and orders a chest X-ray. While the X-ray reveals a small pulmonary nodule, a definitive diagnosis is not established at the time of the encounter; the physician suspects possible early-stage lung cancer and schedules a follow-up appointment for a biopsy. Aaliyah is also a known hypertensive patient, which is being managed with medication. According to ICD-10-CM official guidelines, what is the appropriate coding and sequencing for this encounter?
Correct
The correct coding sequence depends on the specific circumstances of the encounter and adherence to ICD-10-CM official guidelines. When a patient presents with symptoms and a definitive diagnosis is not established during that visit, it is appropriate to code the presenting symptoms. However, if the symptoms are integral to a confirmed underlying condition, then only the diagnosis should be coded. In cases where both symptoms and a related diagnosis are documented, the sequencing is determined by the focus of the encounter. If the visit is primarily for managing the diagnosed condition, then the diagnosis is sequenced first, followed by any relevant symptoms not integral to that condition. Conversely, if the visit focuses primarily on evaluating or treating the symptom, the symptom code takes precedence, followed by the diagnosis. This aligns with the guidelines emphasizing the importance of coding the reason for the encounter first when it is explicitly stated. It is imperative to review the complete medical record documentation to ensure accurate code assignment and sequencing that reflects the clinical picture and the purpose of the healthcare service provided.
Incorrect
The correct coding sequence depends on the specific circumstances of the encounter and adherence to ICD-10-CM official guidelines. When a patient presents with symptoms and a definitive diagnosis is not established during that visit, it is appropriate to code the presenting symptoms. However, if the symptoms are integral to a confirmed underlying condition, then only the diagnosis should be coded. In cases where both symptoms and a related diagnosis are documented, the sequencing is determined by the focus of the encounter. If the visit is primarily for managing the diagnosed condition, then the diagnosis is sequenced first, followed by any relevant symptoms not integral to that condition. Conversely, if the visit focuses primarily on evaluating or treating the symptom, the symptom code takes precedence, followed by the diagnosis. This aligns with the guidelines emphasizing the importance of coding the reason for the encounter first when it is explicitly stated. It is imperative to review the complete medical record documentation to ensure accurate code assignment and sequencing that reflects the clinical picture and the purpose of the healthcare service provided.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
A 72-year-old patient, Aaliyah, presents to her physician with right foot drop. Upon examination and review of her medical history, it is determined that the foot drop is a direct result of poliomyelitis she contracted as a child, over 60 years ago. According to ICD-10-CM coding guidelines, how should this condition be coded and sequenced?
Correct
The correct code sequencing hinges on the underlying cause and manifestation of the patient’s condition, alongside adherence to ICD-10-CM guidelines concerning late effects (sequelae). In this instance, the patient’s current foot drop is a direct result of poliomyelitis suffered decades ago. The ICD-10-CM coding guidelines dictate that sequelae are coded with the condition resulting from the earlier illness coded first, followed by the code for the late effect itself. This convention ensures that the full clinical picture is accurately represented, linking the current manifestation (foot drop) to its etiological origin (poliomyelitis). Code B91 (Sequelae of poliomyelitis) specifically addresses the residual conditions stemming from a previous poliomyelitis infection. G57.80 (Mononeuritis multiplex, unspecified side) describes the foot drop, but its etiology is the key to proper sequencing. The late effect code (B91) should be sequenced first to correctly reflect the underlying cause of the foot drop. Proper sequencing impacts reimbursement, quality reporting, and epidemiological data. Accurate coding reflects the true complexity of the patient’s medical history and current condition.
Incorrect
The correct code sequencing hinges on the underlying cause and manifestation of the patient’s condition, alongside adherence to ICD-10-CM guidelines concerning late effects (sequelae). In this instance, the patient’s current foot drop is a direct result of poliomyelitis suffered decades ago. The ICD-10-CM coding guidelines dictate that sequelae are coded with the condition resulting from the earlier illness coded first, followed by the code for the late effect itself. This convention ensures that the full clinical picture is accurately represented, linking the current manifestation (foot drop) to its etiological origin (poliomyelitis). Code B91 (Sequelae of poliomyelitis) specifically addresses the residual conditions stemming from a previous poliomyelitis infection. G57.80 (Mononeuritis multiplex, unspecified side) describes the foot drop, but its etiology is the key to proper sequencing. The late effect code (B91) should be sequenced first to correctly reflect the underlying cause of the foot drop. Proper sequencing impacts reimbursement, quality reporting, and epidemiological data. Accurate coding reflects the true complexity of the patient’s medical history and current condition.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Dr. Anya Sharma, a pulmonologist, sees a 72-year-old patient, Mr. Kenji Tanaka, in her office. Mr. Tanaka has a long-standing diagnosis of severe COPD and presents today with increased shortness of breath, productive cough, and wheezing. Dr. Sharma performs a detailed history and examination, orders a chest X-ray, and prescribes antibiotics and bronchodilators. The chest X-ray confirms acute bronchitis superimposed on his COPD. Which of the following coding combinations accurately reflects this encounter, assuming a separately identifiable E/M service was performed?
Correct
The correct coding pathway involves understanding the interplay between ICD-10-CM and CPT codes, alongside modifiers, to accurately reflect the clinical scenario. In this case, the patient presents with a chronic condition (COPD) that exacerbates due to an acute respiratory infection. The ICD-10-CM codes must capture both the underlying COPD and the acute infection. The CPT code should reflect the level of E/M service provided, considering the complexity of the patient’s condition and the medical decision-making involved. Modifier 25 is appended to the E/M code if a separately identifiable service was performed during the encounter. The key to correct coding lies in recognizing the distinct elements of the encounter and translating them into the appropriate codes with the necessary specificity. Furthermore, compliance with coding guidelines necessitates accurately reflecting the services provided and avoiding upcoding or unbundling. Understanding the documentation requirements for E/M services, including history, examination, and medical decision-making, is crucial for selecting the appropriate level of service. The coder must also be aware of any relevant Local Coverage Determinations (LCDs) or National Coverage Determinations (NCDs) that may impact coding and reimbursement.
Incorrect
The correct coding pathway involves understanding the interplay between ICD-10-CM and CPT codes, alongside modifiers, to accurately reflect the clinical scenario. In this case, the patient presents with a chronic condition (COPD) that exacerbates due to an acute respiratory infection. The ICD-10-CM codes must capture both the underlying COPD and the acute infection. The CPT code should reflect the level of E/M service provided, considering the complexity of the patient’s condition and the medical decision-making involved. Modifier 25 is appended to the E/M code if a separately identifiable service was performed during the encounter. The key to correct coding lies in recognizing the distinct elements of the encounter and translating them into the appropriate codes with the necessary specificity. Furthermore, compliance with coding guidelines necessitates accurately reflecting the services provided and avoiding upcoding or unbundling. Understanding the documentation requirements for E/M services, including history, examination, and medical decision-making, is crucial for selecting the appropriate level of service. The coder must also be aware of any relevant Local Coverage Determinations (LCDs) or National Coverage Determinations (NCDs) that may impact coding and reimbursement.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
A 68-year-old patient, Maria Rodriguez, presents to her primary care physician with complaints of increasing fatigue, swelling in her ankles, and numbness and tingling in her feet. Her physician documents type 2 diabetes mellitus, diabetic nephropathy with stage 3 chronic kidney disease, and diabetic peripheral neuropathy. According to ICD-10-CM coding guidelines, what is the correct sequencing of these diagnoses?
Correct
The correct sequencing of ICD-10-CM codes in this complex scenario necessitates a thorough understanding of coding guidelines, particularly those related to underlying conditions and manifestations, as well as the specific conventions for coding diabetes mellitus. According to ICD-10-CM guidelines, when a patient presents with a condition that is a manifestation of an underlying disease, the underlying condition should be sequenced first, followed by the manifestation. In this case, the type 2 diabetes mellitus is the underlying condition, and the diabetic nephropathy and peripheral neuropathy are manifestations of the diabetes. Additionally, the chronic kidney disease (CKD) is staged based on severity. Diabetic nephropathy is inherently associated with CKD, and the stage of CKD should be coded. The question specifies stage 3 CKD. Furthermore, peripheral neuropathy due to diabetes must also be coded. Therefore, the correct sequence is to first code the diabetes, then the diabetic nephropathy with stage 3 CKD, and finally the diabetic peripheral neuropathy. The ICD-10-CM guidelines emphasize accurate sequencing to reflect the etiology and manifestation of the patient’s conditions.
Incorrect
The correct sequencing of ICD-10-CM codes in this complex scenario necessitates a thorough understanding of coding guidelines, particularly those related to underlying conditions and manifestations, as well as the specific conventions for coding diabetes mellitus. According to ICD-10-CM guidelines, when a patient presents with a condition that is a manifestation of an underlying disease, the underlying condition should be sequenced first, followed by the manifestation. In this case, the type 2 diabetes mellitus is the underlying condition, and the diabetic nephropathy and peripheral neuropathy are manifestations of the diabetes. Additionally, the chronic kidney disease (CKD) is staged based on severity. Diabetic nephropathy is inherently associated with CKD, and the stage of CKD should be coded. The question specifies stage 3 CKD. Furthermore, peripheral neuropathy due to diabetes must also be coded. Therefore, the correct sequence is to first code the diabetes, then the diabetic nephropathy with stage 3 CKD, and finally the diabetic peripheral neuropathy. The ICD-10-CM guidelines emphasize accurate sequencing to reflect the etiology and manifestation of the patient’s conditions.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
A 78-year-old patient, Ms. Anya Petrova, is admitted to the hospital due to a severe exacerbation of her chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) with chronic bronchitis. During the admission, she is also diagnosed with pneumonia and is found to be in atrial fibrillation. Which of the following represents the correct coding and sequencing for this case, assuming a high level Evaluation and Management (E/M) service is documented?
Correct
The correct coding and sequencing in this complex case hinge on several key factors outlined in the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting and the CPT coding guidelines. Firstly, the acute exacerbation of COPD is the primary reason for the encounter, and should be sequenced first. The guidelines explicitly state that if the reason for admission/encounter is an exacerbation of a chronic condition, the code for the acute exacerbation should be sequenced first. Next, the underlying COPD (chronic bronchitis) is coded to provide a complete picture of the patient’s condition. The pneumonia is coded next, as it is a co-existing condition that is also being treated. Finally, the atrial fibrillation should be reported. The CPT code for E/M service depends on the level of service documented, and should reflect the complexity of the visit. This requires careful evaluation of the documentation for history, examination, and medical decision-making.
Incorrect
The correct coding and sequencing in this complex case hinge on several key factors outlined in the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting and the CPT coding guidelines. Firstly, the acute exacerbation of COPD is the primary reason for the encounter, and should be sequenced first. The guidelines explicitly state that if the reason for admission/encounter is an exacerbation of a chronic condition, the code for the acute exacerbation should be sequenced first. Next, the underlying COPD (chronic bronchitis) is coded to provide a complete picture of the patient’s condition. The pneumonia is coded next, as it is a co-existing condition that is also being treated. Finally, the atrial fibrillation should be reported. The CPT code for E/M service depends on the level of service documented, and should reflect the complexity of the visit. This requires careful evaluation of the documentation for history, examination, and medical decision-making.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Dr. Anya Sharma is treating a patient, Raj Patel, diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus and diabetic nephropathy. The patient has progressed to end-stage renal disease (ESRD) and is insulin-dependent. According to ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, what is the correct sequencing of the ICD-10-CM codes to accurately reflect Raj’s conditions?
Correct
The correct sequencing of codes in this scenario requires adherence to ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, specifically those related to multiple coding for conditions and manifestations. In this case, diabetic nephropathy is the underlying condition, and end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is the manifestation. The guideline dictates that the underlying condition (diabetes) should be sequenced first, followed by the manifestation (ESRD). Additionally, it is crucial to capture the type of diabetes and any associated complications. The appropriate sequencing ensures accurate representation of the patient’s clinical picture and facilitates appropriate reimbursement and data analysis. The ICD-10-CM guidelines emphasize coding to the highest level of specificity, so the type of diabetes and the presence of nephropathy must be clearly indicated. Furthermore, if the patient is on insulin, this should also be coded, as it affects the treatment plan. Therefore, the correct sequence will accurately reflect the diabetes type, the nephropathy, the ESRD, and the insulin use, if applicable. Proper sequencing is essential for compliance with coding regulations and for providing a comprehensive picture of the patient’s health status.
Incorrect
The correct sequencing of codes in this scenario requires adherence to ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, specifically those related to multiple coding for conditions and manifestations. In this case, diabetic nephropathy is the underlying condition, and end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is the manifestation. The guideline dictates that the underlying condition (diabetes) should be sequenced first, followed by the manifestation (ESRD). Additionally, it is crucial to capture the type of diabetes and any associated complications. The appropriate sequencing ensures accurate representation of the patient’s clinical picture and facilitates appropriate reimbursement and data analysis. The ICD-10-CM guidelines emphasize coding to the highest level of specificity, so the type of diabetes and the presence of nephropathy must be clearly indicated. Furthermore, if the patient is on insulin, this should also be coded, as it affects the treatment plan. Therefore, the correct sequence will accurately reflect the diabetes type, the nephropathy, the ESRD, and the insulin use, if applicable. Proper sequencing is essential for compliance with coding regulations and for providing a comprehensive picture of the patient’s health status.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Dr. Anya Sharma is seeing a 68-year-old patient, Mr. Kenji Tanaka, in her internal medicine clinic. Mr. Tanaka has a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, both of which are currently being managed with medication. During today’s visit, Dr. Sharma notes that Mr. Tanaka’s diabetes has progressed to include diabetic nephropathy. She also documents that he has stage 3 chronic kidney disease (CKD). According to ICD-10-CM coding guidelines, what is the correct coding and sequencing for these conditions?
Correct
The correct coding and sequencing depend on the specific documentation provided by the physician. In this scenario, the patient has a history of both hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, and both conditions are currently being managed. The patient also presents with diabetic nephropathy, indicating kidney damage as a result of the diabetes. Additionally, the patient has stage 3 chronic kidney disease (CKD), which is a separate but related condition. According to ICD-10-CM coding guidelines, when a patient has both diabetes and a chronic kidney disease, the diabetes code should be sequenced first, followed by the code for the specific kidney complication. If the documentation specifies the stage of CKD, it should also be coded. Hypertension is coded separately, and its sequencing depends on the encounter’s primary focus. In this case, since all conditions are being managed, it’s appropriate to list the hypertension after the diabetes and kidney-related codes. Proper coding requires a detailed review of the entire medical record to ensure all conditions are accurately captured and sequenced according to official guidelines. This includes assessing the specific type of diabetes, any associated manifestations, and the stage and cause of the CKD.
Incorrect
The correct coding and sequencing depend on the specific documentation provided by the physician. In this scenario, the patient has a history of both hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, and both conditions are currently being managed. The patient also presents with diabetic nephropathy, indicating kidney damage as a result of the diabetes. Additionally, the patient has stage 3 chronic kidney disease (CKD), which is a separate but related condition. According to ICD-10-CM coding guidelines, when a patient has both diabetes and a chronic kidney disease, the diabetes code should be sequenced first, followed by the code for the specific kidney complication. If the documentation specifies the stage of CKD, it should also be coded. Hypertension is coded separately, and its sequencing depends on the encounter’s primary focus. In this case, since all conditions are being managed, it’s appropriate to list the hypertension after the diabetes and kidney-related codes. Proper coding requires a detailed review of the entire medical record to ensure all conditions are accurately captured and sequenced according to official guidelines. This includes assessing the specific type of diabetes, any associated manifestations, and the stage and cause of the CKD.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Dr. Chen performs a screening colonoscopy on a 55-year-old patient. During the procedure, she identifies and removes a 5mm polyp from the transverse colon and a 7mm polyp from the sigmoid colon, both via snare technique. What CPT code(s) should be reported for this procedure?
Correct
The scenario involves a patient undergoing a diagnostic colonoscopy with the removal of two polyps from different locations in the colon. The key to coding this correctly is to understand how to report multiple endoscopic procedures performed during the same session. CPT guidelines dictate that when multiple lesions are removed during a colonoscopy, the code that represents the most distal location should be reported. In this case, the sigmoid colon is more distal than the transverse colon. Therefore, code 45384 (Colonoscopy, flexible; with removal of lesion(s) (e.g., polypectomy, fulguration, excision), sigmoid colon) should be reported. Modifier 59 is not appropriate here, nor is reporting each polypectomy separately.
Incorrect
The scenario involves a patient undergoing a diagnostic colonoscopy with the removal of two polyps from different locations in the colon. The key to coding this correctly is to understand how to report multiple endoscopic procedures performed during the same session. CPT guidelines dictate that when multiple lesions are removed during a colonoscopy, the code that represents the most distal location should be reported. In this case, the sigmoid colon is more distal than the transverse colon. Therefore, code 45384 (Colonoscopy, flexible; with removal of lesion(s) (e.g., polypectomy, fulguration, excision), sigmoid colon) should be reported. Modifier 59 is not appropriate here, nor is reporting each polypectomy separately.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
A 68-year-old patient, Imani, presents to her physician complaining of persistent peripheral neuropathy in her lower extremities. Her medical history reveals that she underwent chemotherapy for breast cancer five years ago and has been in remission since then. The physician determines that the neuropathy is a direct result of the prior chemotherapy treatment. Which of the following ICD-10-CM coding sequences is MOST accurate for this encounter, assuming no active malignancy is present and the neuropathy is the primary focus of the visit?
Correct
The correct application of the “late effect” coding guideline hinges on understanding the nature of the sequela and whether active treatment is directed at the residual condition. In this scenario, the patient is experiencing persistent peripheral neuropathy as a direct result of chemotherapy administered several years ago. The chemotherapy is no longer being administered, and the neuropathy is now the focus of the current encounter. This indicates that the acute phase of the chemotherapy treatment is over, and the neuropathy is a chronic, residual condition. Therefore, according to ICD-10-CM guidelines, the correct coding would involve first coding the residual condition (peripheral neuropathy) followed by the late effect code to establish the relationship between the neuropathy and the prior chemotherapy. If the patient was still undergoing active chemotherapy treatment and experiencing neuropathy as a side effect, the coding would be different, focusing on the active malignancy and the adverse effect of the drug. The key is that the late effect is coded when the acute illness or injury has terminated, and the residual condition is what is being treated. The coder must consult the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting to ensure proper sequencing and code assignment for late effects.
Incorrect
The correct application of the “late effect” coding guideline hinges on understanding the nature of the sequela and whether active treatment is directed at the residual condition. In this scenario, the patient is experiencing persistent peripheral neuropathy as a direct result of chemotherapy administered several years ago. The chemotherapy is no longer being administered, and the neuropathy is now the focus of the current encounter. This indicates that the acute phase of the chemotherapy treatment is over, and the neuropathy is a chronic, residual condition. Therefore, according to ICD-10-CM guidelines, the correct coding would involve first coding the residual condition (peripheral neuropathy) followed by the late effect code to establish the relationship between the neuropathy and the prior chemotherapy. If the patient was still undergoing active chemotherapy treatment and experiencing neuropathy as a side effect, the coding would be different, focusing on the active malignancy and the adverse effect of the drug. The key is that the late effect is coded when the acute illness or injury has terminated, and the residual condition is what is being treated. The coder must consult the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting to ensure proper sequencing and code assignment for late effects.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Dr. Anya Sharma initiates a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. During the procedure, uncontrollable bleeding is encountered, necessitating conversion to an open cholecystectomy to achieve hemostasis. The operative report details significantly increased operative time and extensive dissection due to the bleeding. Which coding strategy BEST reflects the services provided?
Correct
The scenario involves a complex surgical case where Dr. Anya Sharma performs a laparoscopic cholecystectomy (removal of the gallbladder) but encounters significant complications requiring conversion to an open procedure due to uncontrolled bleeding. The key to coding this scenario lies in understanding the appropriate use of modifiers, particularly modifier 22 (Increased Procedural Services) and modifier 53 (Discontinued Procedure). Modifier 22 is appropriate when the service(s) provided are greater than usually required for the listed procedure. This should be supported by documentation that describes the reason for the additional work, effort, and time required to complete the procedure. In this case, the uncontrolled bleeding necessitated a more complex and time-consuming procedure than a standard laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Modifier 53 is used when a surgical or diagnostic procedure is started but discontinued due to extenuating circumstances or those that threaten the well-being of the patient. While the initial plan was laparoscopic, the conversion to open surgery represents a significant change in the approach and resources required. However, because the procedure was completed, albeit through a different approach, modifier 22 is more appropriate to reflect the increased complexity and effort. It is important to note that simply converting to an open procedure does not automatically warrant modifier 22; the documentation must support the increased complexity. Modifier 47 (Anesthesia by Surgeon) is not relevant here as another provider handled anesthesia. Modifier 51 (Multiple Procedures) is also not applicable because the laparoscopic and open approaches are part of the same overall surgical intervention. Therefore, the most accurate coding involves reporting the open cholecystectomy code with modifier 22 to reflect the increased complexity due to the intraoperative complications.
Incorrect
The scenario involves a complex surgical case where Dr. Anya Sharma performs a laparoscopic cholecystectomy (removal of the gallbladder) but encounters significant complications requiring conversion to an open procedure due to uncontrolled bleeding. The key to coding this scenario lies in understanding the appropriate use of modifiers, particularly modifier 22 (Increased Procedural Services) and modifier 53 (Discontinued Procedure). Modifier 22 is appropriate when the service(s) provided are greater than usually required for the listed procedure. This should be supported by documentation that describes the reason for the additional work, effort, and time required to complete the procedure. In this case, the uncontrolled bleeding necessitated a more complex and time-consuming procedure than a standard laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Modifier 53 is used when a surgical or diagnostic procedure is started but discontinued due to extenuating circumstances or those that threaten the well-being of the patient. While the initial plan was laparoscopic, the conversion to open surgery represents a significant change in the approach and resources required. However, because the procedure was completed, albeit through a different approach, modifier 22 is more appropriate to reflect the increased complexity and effort. It is important to note that simply converting to an open procedure does not automatically warrant modifier 22; the documentation must support the increased complexity. Modifier 47 (Anesthesia by Surgeon) is not relevant here as another provider handled anesthesia. Modifier 51 (Multiple Procedures) is also not applicable because the laparoscopic and open approaches are part of the same overall surgical intervention. Therefore, the most accurate coding involves reporting the open cholecystectomy code with modifier 22 to reflect the increased complexity due to the intraoperative complications.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
A 45-year-old male, known to be HIV positive, is admitted to the hospital with acute respiratory failure. After thorough examination and testing, the physician documents *Pneumocystis jirovecii* pneumonia as the underlying cause of the respiratory failure. According to ICD-10-CM official guidelines, what is the correct coding and sequencing for this case?
Correct
The correct coding and sequencing depend on the presenting problem, underlying cause, and any associated conditions. In this scenario, the patient presented with acute respiratory failure. The underlying cause was determined to be pneumonia due to *Pneumocystis jirovecii*, which is an opportunistic infection common in immunocompromised individuals. Since the respiratory failure is directly related to the pneumonia, it should be sequenced as secondary to the pneumonia. Additionally, the patient’s HIV positive status is a significant co-morbidity and should be coded as well. The correct sequencing, according to ICD-10-CM guidelines, would be to code the *Pneumocystis jirovecii* pneumonia first, followed by the acute respiratory failure, and then the HIV infection. This accurately reflects the patient’s condition and the causal relationship between the diagnoses. Accurate coding ensures proper reimbursement and reflects the severity of the patient’s illness.
Incorrect
The correct coding and sequencing depend on the presenting problem, underlying cause, and any associated conditions. In this scenario, the patient presented with acute respiratory failure. The underlying cause was determined to be pneumonia due to *Pneumocystis jirovecii*, which is an opportunistic infection common in immunocompromised individuals. Since the respiratory failure is directly related to the pneumonia, it should be sequenced as secondary to the pneumonia. Additionally, the patient’s HIV positive status is a significant co-morbidity and should be coded as well. The correct sequencing, according to ICD-10-CM guidelines, would be to code the *Pneumocystis jirovecii* pneumonia first, followed by the acute respiratory failure, and then the HIV infection. This accurately reflects the patient’s condition and the causal relationship between the diagnoses. Accurate coding ensures proper reimbursement and reflects the severity of the patient’s illness.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
A 72-year-old patient, Maria Rodriguez, is admitted to the hospital with a physician-documented admitting diagnosis of “rule out acute myocardial infarction.” After a thorough cardiac workup including cardiac enzyme tests and an EKG, the cardiologist determines that the patient is not experiencing a myocardial infarction. The final diagnosis, as documented by the physician, is acute systolic heart failure due to uncontrolled hypertension. According to the UHDDS guidelines and ICD-10-CM coding conventions, what is the appropriate principal diagnosis code to assign for this encounter?
Correct
The correct coding assignment depends on understanding the interplay between the admitting diagnosis, the conditions treated during the encounter, and the Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set (UHDDS) definition of principal diagnosis. According to the UHDDS, the principal diagnosis is defined as the condition established *after study* to be chiefly responsible for occasioning the admission of the patient to the hospital for care. “Rule out” diagnoses are not coded. If the “rule out” diagnosis is established, then it is coded. If the “rule out” diagnosis is not established, then the condition that is most responsible for the admission after study is coded. In this case, the patient was admitted with a “rule out” myocardial infarction. However, after study, the physician determined the patient was suffering from acute systolic heart failure due to hypertension. Therefore, the acute systolic heart failure due to hypertension should be coded as the principal diagnosis. The myocardial infarction is not coded because it was ruled out. In ICD-10-CM, hypertensive heart disease with acute systolic heart failure is coded I11.0.
Incorrect
The correct coding assignment depends on understanding the interplay between the admitting diagnosis, the conditions treated during the encounter, and the Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set (UHDDS) definition of principal diagnosis. According to the UHDDS, the principal diagnosis is defined as the condition established *after study* to be chiefly responsible for occasioning the admission of the patient to the hospital for care. “Rule out” diagnoses are not coded. If the “rule out” diagnosis is established, then it is coded. If the “rule out” diagnosis is not established, then the condition that is most responsible for the admission after study is coded. In this case, the patient was admitted with a “rule out” myocardial infarction. However, after study, the physician determined the patient was suffering from acute systolic heart failure due to hypertension. Therefore, the acute systolic heart failure due to hypertension should be coded as the principal diagnosis. The myocardial infarction is not coded because it was ruled out. In ICD-10-CM, hypertensive heart disease with acute systolic heart failure is coded I11.0.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
An ambulance service transports a patient from their home to a skilled nursing facility for rehabilitation. The ambulance provider is uncertain whether the transport meets Medicare’s medical necessity requirements but transports the patient after informing them of the potential for non-coverage and obtaining a signed notice of liability. Which HCPCS Level II modifier is MOST appropriate to append to the ambulance service code?
Correct
The correct answer highlights the significance of accurately applying HCPCS Level II modifiers, particularly when billing for ambulance services. The GX modifier is used to indicate that a Notice of Liability was voluntarily issued to the patient, even though it was not required. This signifies that the provider believes the service may not be covered by Medicare due to medical necessity or other reasons, but the patient has agreed to receive the service and accept financial responsibility if Medicare denies the claim. The GY modifier, on the other hand, is used to indicate that a statutory exclusion exists, meaning the service is never covered by Medicare. The GZ modifier indicates that the provider expects that Medicare will deny the service as not reasonable and necessary. The GA modifier is used when a required ABN (Advance Beneficiary Notice of Noncoverage) has been obtained. In this scenario, the ambulance service was provided in a situation where the medical necessity was questionable, and the patient was informed of this possibility but still requested the service. The GX modifier is appropriate because a voluntary notice was issued.
Incorrect
The correct answer highlights the significance of accurately applying HCPCS Level II modifiers, particularly when billing for ambulance services. The GX modifier is used to indicate that a Notice of Liability was voluntarily issued to the patient, even though it was not required. This signifies that the provider believes the service may not be covered by Medicare due to medical necessity or other reasons, but the patient has agreed to receive the service and accept financial responsibility if Medicare denies the claim. The GY modifier, on the other hand, is used to indicate that a statutory exclusion exists, meaning the service is never covered by Medicare. The GZ modifier indicates that the provider expects that Medicare will deny the service as not reasonable and necessary. The GA modifier is used when a required ABN (Advance Beneficiary Notice of Noncoverage) has been obtained. In this scenario, the ambulance service was provided in a situation where the medical necessity was questionable, and the patient was informed of this possibility but still requested the service. The GX modifier is appropriate because a voluntary notice was issued.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Dr. Anya Sharma is evaluating a patient with a history of colon cancer treated five years ago with a colectomy and adjuvant chemotherapy. The patient now presents with right upper quadrant pain. Imaging reveals a liver mass, and the pathology report states “adenocarcinoma, likely metastatic from primary colon cancer.” What is the correct ICD-10-CM coding sequence for this encounter?
Correct
The correct coding for this scenario requires careful consideration of coding guidelines for neoplasms, specifically focusing on scenarios involving primary and secondary malignancies. The patient has a history of colon cancer (primary malignancy) and is now diagnosed with liver cancer. To determine the correct coding, we must ascertain if the liver cancer represents a metastasis from the colon cancer or a new primary malignancy. The documentation states “likely metastatic,” which implies that the liver cancer is not a new primary but a spread from the original colon cancer. According to ICD-10-CM guidelines, when a primary malignancy has been previously excised or eradicated, and there is current metastasis, the primary site is coded first, followed by the code for the secondary site. In this case, the colon cancer is the primary site, even though it has been previously treated, and the liver is the secondary (metastatic) site. Therefore, the correct coding sequence is C18.9 (Malignant neoplasm of the colon, unspecified) to represent the primary colon cancer and C78.7 (Secondary malignant neoplasm of liver and intrahepatic bile duct) to represent the metastatic liver cancer. The guideline I.C2.1 instructs us how to code neoplasms and it clearly states that when the primary malignancy has been previously excised or eradicated from its original site, and there is current metastasis to a secondary site, both the primary and secondary sites should be coded, with the primary site coded first. This principle is crucial for accurate cancer registry and reimbursement purposes.
Incorrect
The correct coding for this scenario requires careful consideration of coding guidelines for neoplasms, specifically focusing on scenarios involving primary and secondary malignancies. The patient has a history of colon cancer (primary malignancy) and is now diagnosed with liver cancer. To determine the correct coding, we must ascertain if the liver cancer represents a metastasis from the colon cancer or a new primary malignancy. The documentation states “likely metastatic,” which implies that the liver cancer is not a new primary but a spread from the original colon cancer. According to ICD-10-CM guidelines, when a primary malignancy has been previously excised or eradicated, and there is current metastasis, the primary site is coded first, followed by the code for the secondary site. In this case, the colon cancer is the primary site, even though it has been previously treated, and the liver is the secondary (metastatic) site. Therefore, the correct coding sequence is C18.9 (Malignant neoplasm of the colon, unspecified) to represent the primary colon cancer and C78.7 (Secondary malignant neoplasm of liver and intrahepatic bile duct) to represent the metastatic liver cancer. The guideline I.C2.1 instructs us how to code neoplasms and it clearly states that when the primary malignancy has been previously excised or eradicated from its original site, and there is current metastasis to a secondary site, both the primary and secondary sites should be coded, with the primary site coded first. This principle is crucial for accurate cancer registry and reimbursement purposes.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
A medical record states “rule out pneumonia” following a chest X-ray. The physician has not provided a definitive diagnosis at the time of coding. What is the MOST appropriate action for the certified coding specialist to take?
Correct
The correct answer is querying the physician for clarification regarding the definitive diagnosis. The ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting mandate coding to the highest degree of certainty. If the documentation indicates uncertain diagnoses such as “possible,” “probable,” “suspected,” or “rule out,” the coder should not code the condition as if it exists. Instead, the coder should query the physician to obtain a definitive diagnosis. Coding a suspected condition without confirmation violates coding accuracy principles and could lead to inaccurate data reporting and potential billing fraud. It is the coder’s responsibility to ensure the documentation supports the codes assigned. Querying the physician is essential for compliant and ethical coding practices when uncertainty exists.
Incorrect
The correct answer is querying the physician for clarification regarding the definitive diagnosis. The ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting mandate coding to the highest degree of certainty. If the documentation indicates uncertain diagnoses such as “possible,” “probable,” “suspected,” or “rule out,” the coder should not code the condition as if it exists. Instead, the coder should query the physician to obtain a definitive diagnosis. Coding a suspected condition without confirmation violates coding accuracy principles and could lead to inaccurate data reporting and potential billing fraud. It is the coder’s responsibility to ensure the documentation supports the codes assigned. Querying the physician is essential for compliant and ethical coding practices when uncertainty exists.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
A 68-year-old patient, Ms. Anya Petrova, is admitted for management of anemia. Her physician’s documentation reveals a history of breast cancer treated with chemotherapy six months prior. The anemia is determined to be directly related to the malignancy. Ms. Petrova also presents with peripheral neuropathy in her lower extremities, a documented side effect of the chemotherapy she received. According to ICD-10-CM official guidelines, which of the following reflects the correct coding and sequencing for this encounter?
Correct
The correct coding and sequencing in this complex scenario requires careful consideration of the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, specifically those pertaining to neoplasms, anemia, and complications. The primary malignancy, even if treated, is sequenced first if it’s the reason for the encounter or admission. The anemia due to the malignancy is coded next, and the chemotherapy-induced peripheral neuropathy is coded third, as it’s a direct consequence of the cancer treatment. The guidelines dictate that anemia associated with malignancy should be coded as such, rather than as a standalone anemia. Peripheral neuropathy due to chemotherapy is a common and well-documented adverse effect, and its coding reflects this relationship. The focus is on accurately representing the patient’s condition and the causal relationships between the diagnoses, as reflected in the medical record.
Incorrect
The correct coding and sequencing in this complex scenario requires careful consideration of the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, specifically those pertaining to neoplasms, anemia, and complications. The primary malignancy, even if treated, is sequenced first if it’s the reason for the encounter or admission. The anemia due to the malignancy is coded next, and the chemotherapy-induced peripheral neuropathy is coded third, as it’s a direct consequence of the cancer treatment. The guidelines dictate that anemia associated with malignancy should be coded as such, rather than as a standalone anemia. Peripheral neuropathy due to chemotherapy is a common and well-documented adverse effect, and its coding reflects this relationship. The focus is on accurately representing the patient’s condition and the causal relationships between the diagnoses, as reflected in the medical record.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
A 72-year-old patient, Maria Rodriguez, with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and essential hypertension, is admitted to the hospital with community-acquired pneumonia. During her hospital stay, she develops severe nausea and vomiting due to an adverse reaction to an antibiotic prescribed for the pneumonia. According to ICD-10-CM official guidelines, how should the diagnoses be sequenced?
Correct
The scenario describes a complex coding situation involving a patient with multiple pre-existing conditions (diabetes and hypertension) who develops a new, acute condition (pneumonia) requiring hospitalization. Additionally, the patient experiences an adverse reaction to prescribed medication. The key to correctly sequencing the ICD-10-CM codes lies in understanding the guidelines for coding multiple conditions and adverse drug reactions.
First, the acute condition that led to the hospitalization (pneumonia) should be coded first, as it is the primary reason for the encounter. Then, the chronic conditions (diabetes and hypertension) should be coded. Finally, the adverse effect of the drug needs to be coded. This requires two codes: one for the manifestation (the specific adverse effect) and one for the drug that caused the adverse effect. The sequencing of the manifestation code before the drug code is per coding guidelines. The principal diagnosis is the condition established after study to be chiefly responsible for occasioning the admission of the patient to the hospital for care. This is the pneumonia.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a complex coding situation involving a patient with multiple pre-existing conditions (diabetes and hypertension) who develops a new, acute condition (pneumonia) requiring hospitalization. Additionally, the patient experiences an adverse reaction to prescribed medication. The key to correctly sequencing the ICD-10-CM codes lies in understanding the guidelines for coding multiple conditions and adverse drug reactions.
First, the acute condition that led to the hospitalization (pneumonia) should be coded first, as it is the primary reason for the encounter. Then, the chronic conditions (diabetes and hypertension) should be coded. Finally, the adverse effect of the drug needs to be coded. This requires two codes: one for the manifestation (the specific adverse effect) and one for the drug that caused the adverse effect. The sequencing of the manifestation code before the drug code is per coding guidelines. The principal diagnosis is the condition established after study to be chiefly responsible for occasioning the admission of the patient to the hospital for care. This is the pneumonia.